ATI RN
Pharmacology Practice Exam ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
What would be the teaching priority for a diabetic patient being treated with a nonselective beta-blocker?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Because the beta-blockers stop the signs and symptoms of a sympathetic stress reaction, the signs and symptoms associated with hypo- or hyperglycemia, the diabetic patient taking a beta-blocker will need to understand this and learn new indicators of these reactions. Taking his pulse, weekly weighing, and avoiding smoke-filled rooms are good health practices and should be done, but not specifically needed by a diabetic patient taking a beta-blocker. The nurse should emphasize the importance of recognizing new signs of blood glucose fluctuations.
Question 2 of 5
A patient is being counseled for possible participation in a clinical trial for a new medication. After the patient meets with the physician, the nurse is asked to obtain the patient's signature on the consent forms. The nurse knows that this 'informed consent' indicates which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Informed consent is a legal and ethical requirement that ensures the patient understands the purpose, procedures, risks, benefits, and alternatives of participating in a clinical trial. The patient must be fully informed before agreeing to participate, and they have the right to withdraw at any time. The consent process does not prevent the patient from suing for damages if harm occurs, nor does it withhold information to ensure the trial's success. Therefore, the nurse's role is to confirm that the patient has received all necessary information and voluntarily agrees to participate.
Question 3 of 5
A female patient's central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why would the physician order antibiotics be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering antibiotics through an infected central venous access device (CVAD) is often done to attempt to sterilize the catheter and salvage it, avoiding the need for removal and replacement. This approach is particularly useful for certain types of infections. While peripheral IV administration may be less painful or reduce infiltration risks, the primary goal in this scenario is to treat the infection directly at the source. Therefore, the correct rationale is to sterilize the catheter.
Question 4 of 5
A 38-year-old man with hypertension experiences a first ever attack of acute pain, redness and tenderness in the left first metatarsophalangeal joint ('podagra'). His medication is furosemide, calcium carbonate and irbesartan. Serum uric acid is 0.78 mmol/L (upper limit of normal for men 0.48 mmol/L). Which of the following is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Acute gout (podagra) requires rapid inflammation relief. Paracetamol offers analgesia but no anti-inflammatory effect, inadequate here. Aspirin, at low doses, retains uric acid, worsening gout; at high doses, it's uricosuric but not ideal acutely. Probenecid lowers uric acid long-term, not for acute attacks. Allopurinol prevents gout but can precipitate attacks if started now. Diclofenac, an NSAID, reduces inflammation and pain fast, the most appropriate acute treatment. Its efficacy targets gout's pathophysiology, critical for symptom control.
Question 5 of 5
Haloperidol:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, causes hypotension less than phenothiazines, so that's not its hallmark. It's highly prone to extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) like dystonia due to strong D2 receptor blockade, a true statement. Arrhythmias (e.g., QT prolongation) occur but aren't its primary issue. Antimuscarinic effects are minimal compared to other antipsychotics. Confusion is possible but not its defining toxicity. EPS prominence drives the need for adjunctive anticholinergics in treatment, a key consideration in schizophrenia management.