What would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia who state, "I want a ..." and then stops?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wait for the patient to complete the sentence. This is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia because rushing the patient or providing suggestions can be counterproductive. Waiting allows the patient time to find the words they are looking for and encourages communication. It shows respect for the patient's autonomy and gives them the opportunity to express themselves fully. Choice B may overwhelm the patient, Choice C disrupts the communication process, and Choice D may not align with the patient's intended communication. Patience and support are key in aiding a patient with aphasia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because Nursing Outcomes Classification adds objectivity to judging a patient's progress by providing standardized criteria for assessing outcomes. This helps in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and tracking improvements accurately. Other choices are incorrect: A is wrong because Nursing Outcomes Classification includes 7 domains but not necessarily for level 1; B is incorrect as it uses a 5-point Likert scale, not a 3-point scale; and D is inaccurate because Nursing Outcomes Classification guides the selection of interventions based on the identified outcomes, not allowing complete freedom in choosing interventions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Morphine is an opioid that can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min indicates hypoventilation, which is a potential adverse effect of morphine. This is a critical finding that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure or arrest. A: Voiding of 350mL of concentrated urine in 8 hours is not directly related to morphine's adverse effects. Morphine can cause urinary retention, not increased voiding. C: Irregular heart rate of 82 beats/min is within normal range and not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Morphine can cause bradycardia or tachycardia, but not irregular heart rate specifically. D: Pupils constricted and equal is a common side effect of morphine due to its effect on the central nervous system. This finding does not suggest an adverse effect; it is an expected pharmac

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because thiotepa is a cell cycle-nonspecific alkylating agent that interferes with both DNA replication and RNA transcription. Thiotepa works by cross-linking DNA strands, leading to inhibition of DNA replication and transcription, ultimately causing cell death. This mechanism of action makes it effective against actively dividing cells, such as cancer cells. Choice A is incorrect because thiotepa does not interfere with DNA replication alone. Choice B is incorrect because thiotepa affects both DNA replication and RNA transcription, not just RNA transcription. Choice D is incorrect because thiotepa does not destroy the cell membrane; instead, it acts on the genetic material within the cell.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because collecting urine 24-48 hrs after the client has received nonradioactive B12 is essential for the Schilling test to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption. Urine is collected to measure the excretion of radioactive B12, which helps in diagnosing pernicious anemia or malabsorption issues. Incorrect choices: B: Collecting blood samples is not necessary for the Schilling test as it primarily involves urine collection. C: Allowing oral fluid consumption is important to prevent dehydration and is not contraindicated after receiving nonradioactive B12. D: Making the client lie down in the supine position is unnecessary for the Schilling test and may not affect the test results.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 2 to 3 weeks. Alopecia is a common adverse reaction to chlorambucil, a type of chemotherapy drug that can cause hair loss. Alopecia typically occurs around 2 to 3 weeks after the first administration of chlorambucil. This is because chemotherapy drugs affect rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. Hair loss is a well-known side effect of many chemotherapy drugs, and it is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Incorrect choices: A: Immediately - Hair loss does not occur immediately after the first administration of chlorambucil. C: 1 week - Hair loss typically occurs later than 1 week after starting chemotherapy. D: 1 month - While hair loss can occur within a month, it is more likely to happen sooner, around 2 to 3 weeks after starting the medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because during the first phase of the nursing process (assessment), the nurse collects a comprehensive database of information about the patient's health status and needs. This data forms the foundation for identifying nursing diagnoses, planning interventions, and evaluating outcomes. Choices B, C, and D involve actions that occur in the subsequent phases of the nursing process (diagnosis, planning, and evaluation), not in the initial assessment phase. Therefore, A is the correct choice for the first phase.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Anemia results in decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, leading to tissue hypoxia. 2. Dyspnea (shortness of breath) occurs due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake. 3. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) compensates for decreased oxygen delivery. 4. Pallor (pale skin) is a classic sign of decreased red blood cells in iron-deficiency anemia. Summary: A: Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea are not typical manifestations of iron-deficiency anemia. B: Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia are non-specific symptoms and not specific to iron-deficiency anemia. D: Itching, rash, and jaundice are not commonly associated with iron-deficiency anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assessment and recognition of abnormal findings. This is crucial as trauma to the urinary tract can lead to various complications such as urinary retention, infection, or injury to surrounding structures. By assessing and recognizing abnormal findings, the nurse can promptly identify any issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice A (Assessment of sexual habits) may be important for assessing risk factors for urinary tract trauma, but it is not directly related to assessing the client's current condition post-accident. Choice C (Assessment of allergies to seafood) is irrelevant in this scenario as it does not impact the assessment of urinary tract trauma. Choice D (Assessment of insurance coverage) is not a priority when assessing a client's immediate health status post-accident.