ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What type of sampling wills Nurse Sandy adopts 11 when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a history of multiple myeloma demonstrates hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.
Question 3 of 9
Sensitivity is the ability of a screening test to accurately identify what aspect of the screening?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Persons who have the disease. Sensitivity measures how well a test correctly identifies individuals who have the disease (true positives). It is essential in determining the test's ability to detect the presence of the disease accurately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sensitivity focuses on correctly identifying individuals who have the disease, not those with symptoms, those without the disease, or those with a diagnosis of the disease.
Question 4 of 9
Physiologically, what happens to the brain as Alzheimer progresses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cells die. In Alzheimer's disease, there is a progressive degeneration of brain cells, leading to cell death. This results in a loss of important brain functions such as memory, cognition, and eventually, bodily functions. The atrophy of the brain stem (choice A) is not a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's. Fluid buildup (choice B) is not a primary mechanism of the disease. Tissue swelling (choice D) is not typically associated with the progression of Alzheimer's; rather, there is a gradual loss of brain tissue due to cell death.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with severe sore throat, fever, and enlarged tonsils with exudate. Rapid antigen testing confirms group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus (GAS) infection. Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amoxicillin. Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for GAS pharyngitis due to its effectiveness against Streptococcus bacteria. It is a penicillin-class antibiotic recommended by guidelines. Azithromycin is an alternative for patients allergic to penicillin. Cephalexin is not the first-line choice for GAS. Clindamycin is reserved for patients allergic to both penicillin and macrolides.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Merry 's application to Canada has finally been approved and she was advised to depart in three months But, she is also enrolled in the graduate school and ambivalent to go because of this engagement plus the fact that her mother has just been discharged from the hospital. Which of the following actions is BEST?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Nurse Merry should tell the recruiter to give her more time to settle her personal affairs before departing to Canada. This is the best action because it shows responsibility and consideration for her current commitments and family situation. By requesting more time, she can prioritize her mother's recovery and complete her graduate studies, demonstrating good decision-making skills and care for her loved ones. Option A is incorrect because it dismisses the importance of family and personal obligations. Option B is incorrect as it shows a lack of planning and responsibility. Option D is incorrect as it suggests running away from problems instead of addressing them responsibly.
Question 7 of 9
A woman in active labor demonstrates signs of uterine inertia, with weak and irregular contractions contributing to slow cervical dilation. What nursing intervention should be implemented to address this abnormal labor pattern?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In cases of uterine inertia, where weak and irregular contractions are causing slow cervical dilation during labor, administering intravenous oxytocin can help augment contractions and stimulate more effective progress. Oxytocin is a hormone that naturally stimulates uterine contractions and is commonly used in clinical settings to induce or enhance labor. By increasing the strength and frequency of contractions, oxytocin can help address uterine inertia and promote efficient cervical dilation to facilitate the progress of labor. It is important to monitor the response to oxytocin carefully to avoid complications such as hyperstimulation of the uterus, which can lead to fetal distress.
Question 8 of 9
A biphasic anti-ovulatory medication of combined progestin and estrogen is prescribed for a female patient. What should the nurse include when teaching about this oral contraceptive?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report any irregular vaginal bleeding. This is important because irregular vaginal bleeding can indicate potential issues such as breakthrough bleeding or hormonal imbalances, which may require adjustments to the contraceptive regimen. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Restricting sexual activity is not necessary with this medication, C) Increasing calcium intake is not directly related to taking biphasic anti-ovulatory medication, and D) Bi-monthly Pap smears are not specifically required due to this type of contraception.
Question 9 of 9
Korino has been using meperidine and codeine for personal consumption. Which of the following does the nurse understand as the physiologic effect of these drugs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieves pain by increasing pain threshold. Meperidine and codeine are opioid analgesics that work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, thus increasing the pain threshold and reducing the perception of pain. This leads to pain relief without necessarily affecting sexual stimulation (choice A), craving for alcohol (choice C), or concentration/alertness (choice D). The primary physiological effect of these drugs is to modulate the perception of pain, making choice B the most appropriate answer in this context.