ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What type of sampling wills Nurse Sandy adopts 11 when every third (3rd) patients with MI are selected after a random start?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Systematic sampling. Nurse Sandy is adopting systematic sampling by selecting every third patient with MI after a random start. This method ensures equal chance of selection for each patient and maintains randomness. In contrast, simple random sampling (A) entails each patient having an equal chance of being selected independently. Stratified sampling (B) divides patients into groups based on certain characteristics, which is not the case here. Cluster sampling (D) involves grouping patients and selecting entire groups, which is different from the individual selection in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
Select the medication that should be discussed by the nurse with the attending physician before administering it to patient with acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atropine. Atropine is a mydriatic agent that can exacerbate acute angle closure glaucoma by dilating the pupil and potentially worsening the condition. The nurse should discuss with the attending physician before administering it to avoid worsening the patient's condition. A: Isopto carpine eye drops are actually used in the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma as they help in lowering intraocular pressure, so there is no need to discuss this with the physician. B: Mannitol is used as an osmotic diuretic to reduce intraocular pressure in acute angle closure glaucoma, and it does not directly affect the pupil, so it does not require discussion with the physician before administration. C: Corticosporin ophthalmic is a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid used to treat eye infections and inflammation, but it does not have a direct effect on worsening acute angle closure glaucoma, so it does
Question 3 of 9
A patient with advanced cancer develops malignant bowel obstruction, resulting in abdominal pain and distension. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer opioid analgesics to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort. Opioid analgesics are effective in managing severe pain associated with malignant bowel obstruction. By providing adequate pain relief, the patient's comfort and quality of life can be significantly improved. Choice A is incorrect because initiating bowel rest and maintaining the patient in a semi-Fowler's position may not effectively address the severe pain and discomfort experienced by the patient. Choice C is incorrect as surgical intervention in this scenario may not be appropriate or feasible due to the advanced stage of cancer and the presence of malignant bowel obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as antiemetic medications primarily target nausea and vomiting, which may not be the primary symptoms of concern in this case. Focusing on pain management should be the priority.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is preparing to perform a chest tube insertion for a patient with a pneumothorax. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure proper placement of the chest tube?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because confirming the insertion site and direction using imaging guidance ensures precise placement of the chest tube, minimizing the risk of complications. Imaging guidance allows the nurse to visualize the exact location of the pneumothorax and guide the tube insertion accurately. A: Positioning the patient in a semi-Fowler's position with arms elevated may be beneficial for comfort but does not directly ensure proper chest tube placement. B: Marking the insertion site with a pen may help as a reference point but does not guarantee accurate placement. C: Administering analgesia is important for the patient's comfort but does not impact the placement of the chest tube. In summary, choice D is the most critical step to ensure the chest tube is correctly placed and effectively treats the pneumothorax.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which adverse effect is associated with long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Osteoporosis. Long-term use of inhaled corticosteroids can lead to decreased bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Corticosteroids can interfere with calcium absorption and bone formation, resulting in bone weakening. Oral thrush (Choice A) is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids, but it is not associated with long-term use. Hypertension (Choice B) and hyperglycemia (Choice C) are more commonly seen with systemic corticosteroid use rather than inhaled corticosteroids.
Question 8 of 9
Physiologically, what happens to the brain as Alzheimer progresses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cells die. In Alzheimer's disease, there is a progressive degeneration of brain cells, leading to cell death. This results in a loss of important brain functions such as memory, cognition, and eventually, bodily functions. The atrophy of the brain stem (choice A) is not a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's. Fluid buildup (choice B) is not a primary mechanism of the disease. Tissue swelling (choice D) is not typically associated with the progression of Alzheimer's; rather, there is a gradual loss of brain tissue due to cell death.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Chona read in one nurse's notes chart this documentation: "Refused to eat and fell from bed". Which of the following is lacking in this documentation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the documentation lacks essential details regarding the contents of the complaints, reasons for refusing the meal, and the nature of the fall. This information is crucial for understanding the patient's condition and providing appropriate care. Choice A is not directly related to the documentation provided. Choice B is about referrals and medications, which are not mentioned in the documentation. Choice D is about eating time and medications for pain, which are also not relevant to the documentation provided. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it addresses the specific missing information in the nurse's notes.