What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae

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Question 1 of 9

What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.

Question 2 of 9

A stool sample from a patient with persistent diarrhea revealed cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because it is the only choice that matches the description of cysts with four nuclei, characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis, leading to symptoms like persistent diarrhea. The other choices can be eliminated for the following reasons: B: Balantidium coli - It is a ciliated protozoan that causes dysentery in humans but does not produce cysts with four nuclei. C: Giardia lamblia - It is a flagellated protozoan that causes giardiasis, but it forms cysts with only two nuclei. D: Trichomonas hominis - It is a flagellated protozoan found in the human intestine, but it does not produce cysts with four nuclei. Therefore, based on the description of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample,

Question 3 of 9

A 4 year old child had Mantoux test. 60 hours after tuberculin introduction a focal skin hardening and redness 15 mm in diameter appeared. It was regarded as positive test. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is this test based upon?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Delayed-type hypersensitivity. The Mantoux test is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity. This reaction typically occurs 48-72 hours after exposure to an antigen, such as tuberculin in this case. The focal skin hardening and redness that appeared 60 hours after tuberculin introduction align with the timeline and characteristics of a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction. Summary: - Choice A (Delayed-type hypersensitivity): Correct, as explained above. - Choice B (Immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves immune complexes and typically presents with tissue damage and inflammation. - Choice C (Complement-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction involves the activation of complement proteins leading to cell lysis. - Choice D (Immediate hypersensitivity): Incorrect, as this reaction, such as in allergies, occurs within minutes to hours of exposure to an antigen and involves IgE-mediated mast

Question 4 of 9

Which is the main mechanism of passing the infection with Listeria monocytogenes from man to man:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, transplacental mechanism. Listeria monocytogenes can cross the placenta, infecting the fetus during pregnancy. This mechanism allows the bacteria to be transmitted from mother to baby in utero. Alimentary mechanism (A) involves ingestion of contaminated food, not direct transfer between individuals. Transmission (B) is a broad term that doesn't specify the specific route of Listeria transmission. Physical contact (D) is not a common mode of Listeria transmission compared to transplacental transmission in the case of maternal-fetal infection.

Question 5 of 9

A patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7th day of the disease with complaints of high temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. Dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient was fishing two weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis is caused by the spirochete Leptospira interrogans and is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by animal urine, such as in this case of fishing. The symptoms described match those of leptospirosis, including high fever, headache, muscle pain, jaundice, hemorrhagic rash, and bloody urine. The calf muscle pain is a characteristic symptom of leptospirosis known as "Weil's disease." Yersiniosis (B) typically presents with abdominal symptoms, Salmonellosis (C) with gastrointestinal symptoms, and Brucellosis (D) with flu-like symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms and history provided, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.

Question 6 of 9

Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization of donors with tetanus anatoxin. What class of immunoglobulins prevails in this preparation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: IgG. Anti-tetanus gamma globulin is produced by hyperimmunization, leading to a high concentration of specific antibodies, predominantly IgG. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and provides long-term immunity against tetanus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, not in gamma globulin preparations. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is not the prevailing class in this preparation. IgE is associated with allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not with anti-tetanus immunity.

Question 7 of 9

A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in clusters. The bacteria were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. What is the most likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Staphylococcus epidermidis. This is supported by the characteristics of Gram-positive cocci in clusters, catalase-positive, and coagulase-negative. Staphylococcus epidermidis fits all these criteria, as it is a common skin commensal that can cause infections in immunocompromised individuals. Staphylococcus aureus (choice B) is catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice C) is catalase-negative. Enterococcus faecalis (choice D) is catalase-negative and not typically seen in clusters. Therefore, based on the given information, Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most likely causative agent.

Question 8 of 9

The typhoid fever is produced mainly by:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi. This bacterium is responsible for causing the systemic infection that leads to symptoms such as high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Yersinia pestis (choice A) causes plague, Shigella dysenteriae (choice B) causes dysentery, and Escherichia coli (choice C) can cause various gastrointestinal infections, but not typhoid fever. Salmonella typhi specifically targets the intestines and is transmitted through contaminated food or water. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer for the cause of typhoid fever.

Question 9 of 9

Streptococcus pyogenes releases:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Streptolysin. Streptolysin is a toxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes that causes lysis of red blood cells and contributes to the pathogenicity of the bacteria. Enterotoxin (Choice A) is typically produced by Staphylococcus aureus, not Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylocoagulase (Choice C) is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus to promote blood clot formation and is not associated with Streptococcus pyogenes. Therefore, the correct answer is B as Streptolysin is the toxin released by Streptococcus pyogenes.

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