What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae

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Question 1 of 9

What type of immune reaction is most common in identification of vibrio cholerae

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Agglutination. Agglutination is commonly used to identify Vibrio cholerae by clumping together the bacteria with specific antibodies. This reaction occurs when antibodies bind to antigens on the bacterial surface, leading to visible clumps. In contrast, Precipitation, Western blot, and ELISA are not typically used to identify Vibrio cholerae. Precipitation involves antigen-antibody complexes becoming insoluble, Western blot is used for protein detection, and ELISA is commonly used for detecting specific antigens or antibodies in a sample. Agglutination is the most appropriate choice for identifying Vibrio cholerae due to its specific interaction with the bacteria's surface antigens.

Question 2 of 9

Which antibiotics against Parvovirus B19 can be found during the first 10-14 days of the infection:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IgM. IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an acute infection, such as Parvovirus B19. During the first 10-14 days of the infection, IgM antibodies are usually detectable in the blood, indicating a recent or ongoing infection. IgG antibodies (choice A) are produced later in the immune response and indicate past infection or immunity. IgA (choice B) is more commonly associated with mucosal immunity and may not be as prominent in the early stages of systemic infections. IgD (choice C) is primarily found on the surface of B cells and is involved in B cell activation but is not typically used as a marker for acute infections like IgM.

Question 3 of 9

A vaginal yeast infection is typically caused by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida albicans. Candida albicans is the most common cause of vaginal yeast infections due to its ability to overgrow in warm, moist environments like the vagina. It is a type of fungus that naturally resides in the body, but can cause infection when its growth is not regulated. Histoplasma capsulatum (A) causes a lung infection, Aspergillus niger (C) causes fungal sinusitis, and Saccharomyces cerevisiae (D) is a type of yeast used in baking and brewing, not typically associated with vaginal infections.

Question 4 of 9

A 42-year-old female has foamy purulent vaginal discharges. The smear stained by Romanovsky- Giemsa's method has been found to include flagellated bacteria. What is the most likely microorganism that has been found by the doctor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan parasite commonly found in vaginal infections. The presence of flagellated bacteria in the vaginal discharge stained with Romanovsky-Giemsa method indicates a protozoan infection, ruling out bacterial or viral causes. Choices B, C, and D are not correct as Leishmania donovani causes leishmaniasis, Trypanosoma gambiense causes African sleeping sickness, and Trihomonas hominis is a non-pathogenic flagellate found in the human intestine, not typically associated with vaginal infections.

Question 5 of 9

The tool of choice to observe living microorganisms is the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: phase-contrast microscope. This type of microscope is ideal for observing living microorganisms because it enhances the contrast of transparent specimens without the need for staining or fixing, allowing for clear visualization of internal structures and movements. Bright-field microscopes (A) are suitable for observing fixed and stained specimens, not living organisms. Fluorescence microscopes (C) are used to detect specific cellular components tagged with fluorescent markers, not ideal for observing overall morphology. Electron microscopes (D) use electron beams and are best for viewing detailed structures at high magnification, but are not suitable for observing living organisms due to the need for vacuum conditions.

Question 6 of 9

There is/are __________ level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D (4) because biosafety levels range from 1 to 4, each corresponding to the level of containment required when handling different types of organisms. BSL-1 is for low-risk agents, while BSL-4 is for dangerous pathogens. Choice A (1) is incorrect as there are multiple levels, not just one. Choice B (2) and C (3) are incorrect as they do not account for all the levels of biosafety required for handling various organisms. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it encompasses the full range of biosafety levels.

Question 7 of 9

Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.

Question 8 of 9

Gram (-) bacteria have basal structure consisting of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 4-10% of all materials building the cell wall. Gram (-) bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer making up 4-10% of the cell wall. This is in contrast to Gram (+) bacteria which have a thicker peptidoglycan layer. Choice A is too high a percentage for Gram (-) bacteria. Choice B is too low as it would not provide enough structural support. Choice D is also too high and would not accurately reflect the composition of Gram (-) bacteria.

Question 9 of 9

Which bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Staphylococcus aureus. This bacterium is known as a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its ability to colonize the skin and mucous membranes of healthcare workers and patients. Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections, including surgical site infections and bloodstream infections, in healthcare settings. Rationale: 1. Clostridium botulinum is known for causing foodborne botulism, not hospital-acquired infections. 2. Treponema pallidum causes syphilis, which is primarily transmitted through sexual contact, not hospital settings. 3. Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy, which is not commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections. In summary, Staphylococcus aureus is the correct answer as it is a common cause of hospital-acquired infections due to its prevalence in healthcare environments, unlike the other choices which are not typically associated with hospital-acquired infections.

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