ATI RN
foundations in microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What type of bacteria is responsible for the formation of acid in the stomach?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Helicobacter pylori. This bacterium is responsible for stomach acid formation by producing an enzyme called urease, which converts urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, leading to an increase in stomach pH. Staphylococcus aureus (A) does not cause stomach acid formation. Bacillus cereus (C) and Clostridium botulinum (D) are not involved in stomach acid processes.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is characteristic of Gram-negative bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane that contains lipopolysaccharides, which are important for protection and pathogenicity. This outer membrane is a unique feature of Gram-negative bacteria and is not present in Gram-positive bacteria, making it a key characteristic. A: Incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer compared to Gram-positive bacteria. C: Incorrect because teichoic acids are a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria, not Gram-negative bacteria. D: Incorrect because all bacteria, including Gram-negative bacteria, have a cell wall.
Question 3 of 9
The six generally recognized types of H. Influenzae are: a,b,c,d,e and f. They are divided on the basis of their:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: K-antigen. H. Influenzae types are classified based on their capsular polysaccharides, which are known as K-antigens. The K-antigen is a major virulence factor and plays a crucial role in the pathogenicity of H. Influenzae. The other options (A, C, D) are not used to classify H. Influenzae types. Vi-antigen is related to Salmonella serotyping, O-antigen is characteristic of gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Salmonella, and H-antigen is typically associated with flagellar antigens of bacteria like Salmonella and E. coli.
Question 4 of 9
A blood culture from a patient with sepsis revealed Gram-positive cocci in pairs. The bacteria were catalase-negative and alpha-hemolytic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This is because the bacterium is Gram-positive cocci in pairs, catalase-negative, and alpha-hemolytic, which are characteristic features of S. pneumoniae. The other choices can be ruled out based on specific characteristics: B) Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive, C) Enterococcus faecalis is gamma-hemolytic, and D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a Gram-negative diplococcus. Therefore, based on the given information, S. pneumoniae is the most likely causative agent of the sepsis.
Question 5 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing leprosy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mycobacterium leprae. This bacterium is responsible for causing leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease. Mycobacterium leprae specifically targets the skin, peripheral nerves, and mucosa of the upper respiratory tract. It is an acid-fast bacterium with a slow growth rate, making it difficult to culture in the laboratory. Streptococcus pyogenes (choice A) is responsible for various infections such as strep throat, Neisseria gonorrhoeae (choice C) causes gonorrhea, and Escherichia coli (choice D) is commonly found in the gut and can lead to various infections but not leprosy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who came to the doctor because of his infertility was administered to make tests for toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea. Which reaction should be performed to reveal latent toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhoea in this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.
Question 7 of 9
The phagocytosis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because phagocytosis refers to the process where certain host cells engulf and destroy microorganisms. This is an essential mechanism of the immune system to eliminate pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because phagocytosis does not involve the use of antibiotics. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different mechanism of action against bacteria. Choice D is incorrect because phagocytosis is a well-established biological process.
Question 8 of 9
There are several cases of children from boarding school suffering from sore throat. Microscopy of tonsil smears stained according Neisser method has revealed thin yellow bacilli with dark brown grains on their ends placed in the shape of Roman numeral five. What infection can be suspected in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Diphtheria): 1. Thin yellow bacilli with dark brown grains on ends suggest Corynebacterium diphtheriae, characteristic of diphtheria. 2. Roman numeral five shape is typical of diphtheria bacilli. 3. Diphtheria causes sore throat and can spread in boarding schools. 4. Neisser staining method is used for diphtheria bacilli. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Scarlet fever is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and presents with rash, not yellow bacilli. C: Listeriosis is caused by Listeria monocytogenes, not consistent with the described findings. D: Tonsillitis can be caused by various bacteria or viruses, but the specific characteristics described do not match.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with a long history of chronic gastritis undergoes a gastroscopy, which detects an ulcer in the duodenum area. Microscopic examination of the tissue biopsy developed Gram-negative curved bacteria and the rapid urease activity test of the biopsy material was highly positive. The most likely cause of the disease is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Helicobacter pylori. Helicobacter pylori is a known bacterium associated with causing duodenal ulcers. The presence of Gram-negative curved bacteria in the biopsy along with a highly positive rapid urease test is characteristic of H. pylori infection. Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not duodenal ulcers. Campylobacter fetus is associated with gastroenteritis, not duodenal ulcers. Acinetobacter baumannii is a nosocomial pathogen, not typically associated with duodenal ulcers. In summary, the unique combination of findings in this case points towards H. pylori as the most likely cause of the disease.