ATI RN
microbiology a systems approach test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What type of bacteria is responsible for causing tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis, as it has unique characteristics that allow it to infect the lungs and evade the immune system, leading to a chronic infection. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a slow-growing, acid-fast bacterium that can survive and replicate within macrophages, causing the characteristic granulomas seen in tuberculosis. Choice B, Escherichia coli, is a common gut bacterium and is not responsible for tuberculosis. Choice C, Clostridium botulinum, causes botulism, not tuberculosis. Choice D, Salmonella enterica, causes food poisoning, not tuberculosis.
Question 2 of 9
The complex of all biological processes/mechanisms is responsible for the state of steady internal, physical, chemical conditions in the living systems and defense against all foreign agents is known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Immunity): 1. Immunity refers to the body's ability to defend against foreign agents. 2. Homeostasis is the state of steady internal conditions, not specifically related to defense. 3. Infection is the invasion and multiplication of pathogens, not the overall defense mechanism. 4. Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship where one organism benefits without harming the other.
Question 3 of 9
Group II category diseases as established by the NIAID include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: reemerging diseases. Group II category diseases by the NIAID are those that have reemerged or have the potential to reemerge. This classification helps prioritize research and resources. Choice A is incorrect because new foodborne pathogens fall under different categories. Choice B is incorrect as eradicated diseases are not part of the reemerging group. Choice C is incorrect because bioterrorism agents are classified separately. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it aligns with the purpose of Group II category diseases.
Question 4 of 9
The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration is called:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pharmacokinetics. Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement in the body, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. It focuses on how the body processes a drug over time. Pharmacodynamics (A) is the study of the effects drugs have on the body. Pharmacotherapeutics (C) involves using drugs to treat diseases. Pharmacy (D) is the practice of preparing and dispensing medications. Pharmacokinetics specifically deals with drug concentrations at different body sites after administration, making it the most appropriate choice for this question.
Question 5 of 9
The dynamic balance of the species in the normal microflora is known as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: eubiosis. Eubiosis refers to a state of balance and harmony among the species in the normal microflora. This term signifies a healthy and stable microbial community. Dysbiosis (A) is the opposite, indicating an imbalance or disruption in the microflora. Eukaryota (B) refers to organisms with cells containing a nucleus, not specifically related to the balance of microflora. Dispersion (C) refers to the spreading or distribution of microorganisms, not specifically related to their balance. In summary, eubiosis best describes the dynamic balance of species in the normal microflora, making it the correct choice.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following consists of DNA viruses?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Parvoviridae. Parvoviruses are DNA viruses, as their genetic material is composed of DNA. This distinguishes them from RNA viruses like Picornaviridae, Astroviridae, and Togaviridae. Parvoviruses replicate in the host cell nucleus, further confirming their DNA nature. Therefore, based on their DNA composition and replication process, Parvoviridae is the correct choice.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following microorganisms require a moist environment to survive and most often live in ponds, streams, lakes, and oceans?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blastospores. Blastospores are a type of fungal spore that requires a moist environment to survive. They are commonly found in water bodies like ponds, streams, lakes, and oceans. Mycorrhizae (A) are symbiotic associations between fungi and plant roots, not solely dependent on a moist environment. Armillaria gallica (B) is a type of fungus that can survive in various environmental conditions, not specifically reliant on a moist environment. Choice C is a duplicate of Blastospores, making it incorrect.
Question 8 of 9
The type of antibody that can cross the placenta is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: IgG. IgG is the only antibody that can cross the placenta due to its small size and unique structure, allowing it to provide passive immunity to the fetus. IgA is mainly found in mucosal secretions, IgM is too large to cross the placental barrier, and IgD plays a role in B cell activation but is not involved in placental transfer.
Question 9 of 9
Microscopic analysis of a smear stained by Ziehl-Neelsen method revealed bright red bacilli. What microorganism is being tested for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is specific for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The bright red bacilli seen in the smear indicate the presence of acid-fast organisms, which is characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium tetani, and Escherichia coli are not acid-fast bacteria and would not be stained red using the Ziehl-Neelsen method. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis.