ATI RN
Gastrointestinal Assessment Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What test will be done before prescribing treatment for the patient with positive testing for HCV?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: HCV genotyping. Before prescribing treatment for a patient with positive HCV testing, genotyping is essential to determine the specific strain of HCV present. This information guides treatment decisions as different HCV genotypes respond differently to antiviral medications. Anti-HCV (choice A) is used for initial screening but does not provide genotype information. HCV RNA quantitation (choice B) measures viral load but does not identify the genotype. Recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) (choice D) is an older confirmatory test and is not typically used for initial treatment decision-making.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is a common risk factor for gallstones?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gender (female). Women have a higher risk of developing gallstones due to hormonal factors, such as estrogen increasing cholesterol levels in bile. This imbalance can lead to gallstone formation. Advanced age (B) is a risk factor but not as common as gender. While a high-fat diet (A) can contribute to gallstone formation, it is not a primary risk factor. Family history (D) can increase the likelihood of gallstones, but it is not as common as being female.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse caring for an 80-year-old woman who is undergoing extensive bowel preparation for a colonoscopy. The nurse should most closely monitor the patient for which potential complication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. During bowel preparation for a colonoscopy, the patient may experience fluid and electrolyte imbalances, leading to metabolic acidosis. The nurse should closely monitor for signs such as confusion, weakness, and increased respiratory rate. Diarrhea (choice A) is expected during bowel preparation but does not directly lead to metabolic acidosis. Fatigue (choice C) and dyspnea (choice D) are less likely complications of bowel preparation and do not directly relate to metabolic acidosis.
Question 4 of 5
Which structure is located where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: esophageal hiatus. This is the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes, connecting the thoracic and abdominal cavities. The esophageal hiatus is specifically located at the level of the tenth thoracic vertebra. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Cardiac orifice refers to the opening of the stomach into the esophagus, not where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm. C: Upper esophageal sphincter is a muscular valve at the upper end of the esophagus, not related to its passage through the diaphragm. D: Lower esophageal sphincter is located at the junction of the esophagus and stomach, not at the point where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been receiving high doses of corticosteroids for an extended perioWhich side effect is most commonly seen in patients receiving long-term corticosteroid therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. Long-term corticosteroid therapy can lead to insulin resistance and increased blood glucose levels. This occurs due to the corticosteroids interfering with insulin action and glucose metabolism. Hyperglycemia is a common side effect that can potentially lead to diabetes. Bradycardia (B), diarrhea (C), and decreased appetite (D) are not commonly associated with long-term corticosteroid therapy. Bradycardia is more commonly associated with medications such as beta-blockers, while diarrhea and decreased appetite are not typical side effects of corticosteroids.