What term is used to describe a specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the pa tient loses capacity to make decisions?

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Question 1 of 9

What term is used to describe a specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the pa tient loses capacity to make decisions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Living will. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. It specifically addresses life-prolonging procedures. Option A, Do not resuscitate order, is a specific directive to not perform CPR in case of cardiac arrest, not a comprehensive medical care directive. Option B, Healthcare proxy, is a person designated to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so, not the specific directive itself. Option C, Informed consent, refers to the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention, not a directive for life-prolonging procedures.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarma, btihrbe.c nomu/rtesset assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnection from the ventilator. This is the correct choice because a high inspiratory pressure alarm can indicate a disconnection, leading to inadequate ventilation and increased pressure in the circuit. This can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate attention. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Coughing or attempting to talk - While coughing or talking may affect the patient's ability to ventilate properly, it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm. C: Kinks in the ventilator tubing - Kinks in the tubing may cause increased resistance to airflow, but they are more likely to trigger a low pressure alarm rather than a high inspiratory pressure alarm. D: Need for suctioning - Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.

Question 4 of 9

Which nursing strategies help the patient to feel safe in the critical care setting? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because allowing family members to remain at the bedside can provide emotional support and comfort to the patient, helping them feel safe in the critical care setting. Family presence can also facilitate communication and understanding between the healthcare team and the patient. Choice B is incorrect because consulting with the charge nurse before making patient care decisions may not directly contribute to the patient feeling safe. Choice C is incorrect because providing informal conversation about work-related topics may not address the patient's need for safety and security in the critical care setting. Choice D is incorrect because explaining how to communicate for assistance is important for patient care but may not directly contribute to the patient's sense of safety in the critical care setting.

Question 5 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.

Question 6 of 9

A patient who has experienced blunt abdominal trauma during a motor vehicle collision is complaining of increasing abdominal pain. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the purpose of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abdominal ultrasonography. This is because ultrasonography is a non-invasive imaging technique that can quickly evaluate for internal injuries such as organ damage or bleeding in patients with blunt abdominal trauma. It is a rapid and effective diagnostic tool to assess the extent of injury and guide further management. Peritoneal lavage (A) is an invasive procedure used in trauma settings to detect intra-abdominal bleeding but is not typically used for teaching purposes. Nasogastric tube placement (C) is used for decompression and drainage in certain conditions but is not relevant for assessing abdominal trauma. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (D) is not typically used as the initial imaging modality for acute trauma due to time constraints and its limited availability in emergency settings.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is caring for a critically ill trauma patient who is expected to be hospitalized for an extended period of time. Which of the following nursing interventions would improve the patient’s well-being and reduce anxiety the most?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pet therapy has been shown to reduce anxiety and improve well-being in hospitalized patients. Interacting with therapy dogs can provide comfort, companionship, and a distraction from the hospital environment. Bringing in a therapy dog can help the trauma patient feel more relaxed and supported during their extended hospital stay. Choice A may be comforting but does not address the therapeutic benefits of pet therapy. Choice C may provide soothing music, but pet therapy has been specifically proven to reduce anxiety in patients. Choice D, observing fish in an aquarium, may be calming but does not involve the interactive benefits of pet therapy.

Question 8 of 9

The patient has a temporary percutaneous catheter in place for treatment of acute kidney injury. The catheter has been in place for 5 days. The nurse should

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because after 5 days, the risk of infection increases. Evaluating the patient for signs and symptoms of infection is crucial for early detection and treatment. Choice A is incorrect because routine dialysis catheter changes are not necessary after only 5 days. Choice C is incorrect as percutaneous catheters are for short-term use. Choice D is incorrect as using the catheter for fluid administration may increase the risk of infection.

Question 9 of 9

A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.

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