ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What term is used to describe a specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the pa tient loses capacity to make decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Living will. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. It specifically addresses life-prolonging procedures. Option A, Do not resuscitate order, is a specific directive to not perform CPR in case of cardiac arrest, not a comprehensive medical care directive. Option B, Healthcare proxy, is a person designated to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so, not the specific directive itself. Option C, Informed consent, refers to the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention, not a directive for life-prolonging procedures.
Question 2 of 9
Which nursing interventions would best support the family of a critically ill patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving regular condition updates promotes transparency and communication, reducing anxiety for the family. This intervention helps them stay informed and involved in the patient's care. Choice A may lead to caregiver fatigue and is not sustainable. Choice C limits family support and may increase stress. Choice D focuses on comfort but does not address the family's need for information.
Question 3 of 9
assessment, the patient is restless, heart rate has increased to 110 beats/min, respirat ions are 36 breaths/min, and blood pressure is 156/98 mm Hg. The cardiac monitor shows sin us tachycardia with 10 premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) per minute. Pulmonary artery pressures are elevated. The nurse suctions the patient and obtains pink, frothy secretio ns. Loud crackles are audible throughout lung fields. The nurse notifies the physician, who orders an ABG analysis, electrolyte levels, and a portable chest x-ray study. In comambirubn.ciocma/tteinstg with the physician, which statement indicates the nurse understands what is likely occurring with the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “My assessment indicates potential fluid overload.” The patient is showing signs of fluid overload, such as increased heart rate, respiratory rate, elevated blood pressure, pulmonary artery pressures, frothy secretions, and crackles in lung fields. These symptoms suggest fluid is accumulating in the lungs, causing pulmonary congestion. This can lead to impaired gas exchange and respiratory distress. The nurse's recognition of these signs is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Other choices are incorrect because there are no indications of a myocardial infarction, PVCs compromising cardiac output, or a hypertensive crisis based on the given information.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse admits a terminally ill patient to the hospital. What is the first action that the nurse should complete when planning this patient care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining the patient's wishes regarding end-of-life care is crucial in providing patient-centered care and ensuring that the patient's preferences are respected. By understanding the patient's preferences, healthcare providers can tailor the care plan to align with the patient's values and goals. This helps in promoting autonomy, dignity, and quality of life for the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although addressing family issues, discussing grief, and encouraging the patient to express fears are important aspects of caring for a terminally ill patient, they are not the first action that should be completed. Prioritizing the patient's wishes ensures that the care plan is centered around the patient's needs and preferences, which is essential in providing holistic and patient-centered care.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient following insertion of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC). Which action by the nurse best reduces th e risk of catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Review daily the necessity of the central venous catheter. This action reduces the risk of CRBSI by promoting early removal of unnecessary catheters, which is a key strategy in preventing infections. Unnecessary catheters increase the risk of infection due to prolonged exposure to the patient's skin flora and possible contamination during insertion. Reviewing daily ensures the catheter is only kept when necessary, minimizing the duration of catheter use and reducing the chances of infection. Summary of other choices: B: Cleansing the insertion site daily with isopropyl alcohol is important for maintaining skin integrity but does not directly reduce the risk of CRBSI. C: Changing the pressurized tubing system and flush bag daily is important for maintaining catheter patency but does not directly reduce the risk of CRBSI. D: Maintaining a pressure of 300 mm Hg on the flush bag is important for proper catheter function but does not directly reduce the risk of CR
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation. B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones. C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity. D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous re spirations are 12 breaths/min. The patient receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and now respi rations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient’s ve ntilator settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.
Question 8 of 9
To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best initial action by the nurse is to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most reliable method to confirm correct endotracheal tube placement in the trachea. This method detects exhaled CO2, indicating proper tube placement in the trachea. It is a quick and efficient way to confirm placement without delay, reducing the risk of complications. A: Auscultating for bilateral breath sounds is not as reliable because breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is misplaced. B: Obtaining a portable chest x-ray is not the best initial action as it takes time and delays confirming tube placement. C: Observing chest movement may not provide conclusive evidence of proper tube placement and can lead to misinterpretation. In summary, using an end-tidal CO2 monitor is the most accurate and efficient method to verify correct endotracheal tube placement compared to the other options.
Question 9 of 9
A hospice patient develops a pressure ulcer despite proper repositioning. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because implementing more aggressive wound care strategies is essential for managing pressure ulcers effectively. This includes proper wound cleaning, debridement, and dressing changes to promote healing. Adequate hydration and nutrition (choice B) are important but may not directly address the pressure ulcer. Discussing prognosis and expected outcomes (choice C) is important but may not directly impact wound healing. Encouraging increased physical activity (choice D) may be contraindicated due to the patient's condition.