ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
What specific term should Nurse Gladys write in her charting when a patient is suffering from a change in the angle between the nail base greater than 180 degrees due to congenital heart disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingers is a specific term that Nurse Gladys should write in her charting when a patient is suffering from a change in the angle between the nail base greater than 180 degrees due to congenital heart disease. Clubbing of the fingers is a diagnostic sign associated with various medical conditions, including congenital heart disease. It is characterized by changes in the angle and shape of the nails, typically involving softening of the nail bed, enlargement of the fingertips, and a loss of the normal angle between the nail and the nail bed. Peripheral neuropathy, inflammation of the fingers, and peripheral cyanosis are different conditions and do not specifically describe the nail changes seen in clubbing.
Question 2 of 9
While you are doing your physical assessment to patent Aster, she has been exhibiting a UNIQUE clinical manifestation different from patients Claire and Sonia which is characterized by________.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical manifestations of Aster suggest acromegaly, a condition characterized by the excessive growth of hands and feet due to a tumor in the pituitary gland leading to overproduction of growth hormone. Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by poor oxygenation, which is not typically associated with acromegaly. The other options do not match the unique clinical manifestation described for Aster. Anemia, weight loss, moon facies, and edema are more commonly associated with other conditions like Cushing's syndrome, anemia, or heart failure.
Question 3 of 9
Which medication will be prescribed to control and maintain the blood pressue of patients at normal level?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Amlodipine is a medication commonly prescribed to control and maintain blood pressure at normal levels. It belongs to a class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers, which work by relaxing and widening blood vessels, making it easier for the heart to pump blood around the body. This ultimately helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the workload on the heart, decreasing the risk of cardiovascular events like heart attacks and strokes. Lidocaine, Epinephrine, and Furosemide are not typically used for controlling and maintaining blood pressure within normal limits.
Question 4 of 9
Nurse Merle has to renew her license on or before _____.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nurse Merle has to renew her license on or before January 6, 2022, as that date falls at the end of the standard two-year license renewal cycle for nurses in many jurisdictions. Renewing on or before this date will ensure that Nurse Merle maintains her active licensure status and can continue practicing legally without any interruptions. It is important for healthcare professionals like nurses to stay current with their licensure to uphold professional standards and provide quality care to patients.
Question 5 of 9
One evening, Sonny complained of dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. What should be the FIRST action of the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The FIRST action of the nurse should be to reassess the client experiencing dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. Reassessment would involve checking the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation levels, vital signs, and overall condition to gather more information about the situation. This will help the nurse identify any potential causes of the dyspnea and determine the appropriate next steps for intervention. Assessing the client before proceeding with any other actions is crucial in providing safe and effective care.
Question 6 of 9
The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The BEST rationale for the conduct of the program is to deliver safe and quality nursing care to patients on intravenous therapy (IV). This directly ties the purpose of the program to the real-world outcome it seeks to achieve - providing optimal care for patients requiring intravenous therapy. Ensuring safe practice in the hospital (Option A) is important but it is not specific to the focus of the IV therapy program. Improving nursing practice in general (Option B) is a noble goal but the program should have a specific and targeted objective. Providing knowledge and skills to all nursing staff in IV Therapy (Option C) is essential, but the primary aim should be centered on improving patient care outcomes. Therefore, delivering safe and quality nursing care to patients on IV therapy aligns most closely with the core purpose of the program and should be the primary rationale.
Question 7 of 9
A postpartum client who delivered vaginally reports difficulty emptying the bladder completely and experiences urinary frequency. What nursing intervention should be prioritized to address this issue?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to first assess the client for signs of urinary retention or bladder distention. Difficulty in emptying the bladder completely and experiencing urinary frequency can be indications of urinary retention, which can lead to bladder distention and possible complications such as urinary tract infection. By assessing the client, the nurse can determine the cause of the issue and implement appropriate interventions. It is crucial to address potential complications promptly to promote the client's health and well-being postpartum. Once the assessment is completed, further interventions such as recommending appropriate measures, like warm compresses or pelvic floor exercises, can be considered based on the assessment findings.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with suspected acute exacerbation of asthma presents with severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for assessing the severity of the patient's asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is presenting with severe symptoms of acute exacerbation of asthma, including severe dyspnea, accessory muscle use, and inability to speak in full sentences. In such cases, the most appropriate intervention for assessing the severity of the asthma exacerbation and guiding management decisions is a clinical assessment using standardized severity scores.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is prescribed a beta-blocker for the management of hypertension. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Beta-blockers are a class of medications commonly used to manage hypertension. One of the main mechanisms of action of beta-blockers is to reduce heart rate and contractility by blocking the beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. As a result, one of the potential adverse effects of beta-blockers is bradycardia, which refers to a slower than normal heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of bradycardia when starting or adjusting the dose of a beta-blocker. Symptoms of bradycardia may include dizziness, fainting, fatigue, or shortness of breath. If bradycardia is severe or symptomatic, it may require dose adjustments or discontinuation of the beta-blocker to prevent complications.