ATI RN
Fundamentals of Nursing Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
\What should the nurse teach an older client with TIA?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To comply with the medication regimen. Teaching the older client with TIA to comply with medication regimen is crucial in preventing further TIAs or strokes. Medications like antiplatelets or anticoagulants are often prescribed to manage TIA. This education empowers the client to actively participate in their own health management. Incorrect choices: A: Not to worry about the symptoms that are part of the normal aging process - This is incorrect as TIA symptoms are not considered a normal part of aging and should not be ignored. B: To admit oneself to a rehabilitation center or a nursing home for rehabilitation - This is incorrect as it is not the primary intervention for managing TIA. D: To observe any changes in the nails and skin - This is incorrect as it is not directly related to managing TIA.
Question 2 of 9
When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted client, the nurse should remember that which of the following foods is a common allergen?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Strawberries. Strawberries are a common allergen due to their high allergenic potential. When taking a dietary history, it is important to identify potential allergens to prevent adverse reactions. Oranges, carrots, and bread are not as commonly associated with allergies compared to strawberries. Identifying common allergens helps in providing safe and appropriate dietary recommendations for clients.
Question 3 of 9
Which statement, from a participant attending the class on AIDS prevention, indicates an understanding on how to reduce transmission of HIV?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. This statement shows an understanding of reducing HIV transmission by promoting harm reduction strategies like needle exchange programs, which help prevent sharing of contaminated needles. This approach is evidence-based and effective in reducing the spread of HIV among injection drug users. Choice A is incorrect because breastfeeding by HIV-positive mothers can transmit the virus to infants. Choice C is incorrect as birth control pills do not protect against HIV, only against pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as natural skin condoms do not provide the same level of protection against HIV as latex condoms do.
Question 4 of 9
A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5 FU [Fluoroplex]). Fluorouracil is commonly used in chemotherapy for liver cancer to inhibit cancer cell growth. It is a pyrimidine analog that interferes with DNA synthesis. Fluoxymesterone (A) is an androgen used in hormone replacement therapy, not in liver cancer treatment. Tamoxifen (C) is an antiestrogen used in breast cancer treatment, not liver cancer. Megestrol (D) is a progestin used in hormone therapy for breast cancer and endometrial cancer, not liver cancer. Therefore, the correct choice is B as it directly targets cancer cell growth in liver cancer treatment.
Question 5 of 9
Clients who will go through operations and who have undergone surgery need the proper observation, treatment and care. Implementing the nursing process to these patients will help reduce complications. Nurse Maria checks on Mr. Alberto who had abdominal surgery, and finds that the edges of the incision have separated. Also, a small portion of the bowel is sticking out through the incision. Nurse Maria would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Cover wound with moist sterile dressing Rationale: 1. Covering the wound with a moist sterile dressing helps maintain a clean and moist environment, promoting wound healing. 2. Moist dressing prevents the wound from drying out and minimizes the risk of infection. 3. The moist environment supports healing by promoting cell growth and preventing tissue damage. 4. It protects the exposed bowel from further injury and contamination. Summary: B: Finding out how this happened is important but not an immediate priority for patient care. C: Placing sterile dry gauze can lead to the wound drying out and hinder healing. D: Pouring sterile water into the wound is not recommended as it can introduce contaminants and is not considered standard care for this situation.
Question 6 of 9
Emil, just had a thyroidectomy this morning. Upon awakening, he complains of circumoral tingling, has a positive Chvostek’s sign and positive Trousseau’s sign. Nurse Ofel assesses this to be an indication of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is A, overstimulation of the parathyroid hormone. After a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of unintentional damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Circumoral tingling, positive Chvostek’s sign, and positive Trousseau’s sign are classic signs of hypocalcemia resulting from parathyroid insufficiency. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the specific symptoms observed in Emil, which are indicative of low calcium levels due to parathyroid dysfunction.
Question 7 of 9
Toni’s disease process involves a sacral plexus. Assessment should include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Involvement of the sacral plexus can affect bladder control, leading to bladder problems. It can also impact bowel function, requiring bowel management. Additionally, the sacral plexus plays a role in sexual function, so assessment should include sexual activity. Therefore, all options are relevant when assessing a disease process involving the sacral plexus. Other choices are incorrect as they do not cover the comprehensive assessment needed for this specific condition.
Question 8 of 9
A male client recently underwent a surgical procedure for a malignant tumor. As a result of the surgery, his urine is diverted to a stomal pouch. What should the nurse suggest so that he remains odor free.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drinking cranberry juice. Cranberry juice is known to help reduce urinary odor due to its acidic nature which can help eliminate bacteria that cause odor. It also helps to maintain urinary tract health. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Eating spicy foods can actually increase body odor and may not have any impact on urinary odor. C: Foods like eggs, asparagus, or cheese may contribute to strong body odor but do not specifically address urinary odor. D: Drinking tea, coffee, and colas can potentially worsen urinary odor due to their caffeine content and impact on urinary tract health.
Question 9 of 9
Mrs. Zeno continues to become a weaker despite .treatment with neostigmine. Edrophonium HCL is ordered:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: To rule out cholinergic crisis Neostigmine. Edrophonium HCL is a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor used to differentiate between myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis, as both conditions present similarly with muscle weakness. Administering edrophonium HCL will help determine if the patient's worsening weakness is due to excessive cholinergic stimulation from neostigmine (cholinergic crisis) or inadequate acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction (myasthenic crisis). This step is crucial for proper management, as treating cholinergic crisis with more cholinesterase inhibitors like neostigmine can worsen symptoms. Incorrect choices: A: For its synergistic effect - Edrophonium HCL does not have a synergistic effect with neostigmine. B: Because of the client's resistance to - Resistance to neostigmine is not a reason to administer edrophonium H