ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the patient is recovering from preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Increased urine output indicates improved kidney function, a key indicator of recovery from preeclampsia. Step 2: Adequate urine output helps regulate blood pressure and reduce swelling. Step 3: Consistent urine output >100 mL/hour signifies the kidneys are functioning properly. Step 4: Therefore, C is the correct answer as it directly reflects recovery progress from preeclampsia. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with kidney function or recovery from preeclampsia.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse wants to reduce data entry errors onthe computer system. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because charting on the computer immediately after care is provided reduces the chances of forgetting important details and ensures accuracy. It also allows for real-time documentation, improving patient care. Choice A is incorrect as using the same password all the time poses a security risk. Choice B is incorrect as sharing passwords compromises confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as printing out and reviewing notes at home does not address data entry errors on the computer system.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
Question 4 of 9
When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue. Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows into the muscular wall of the uterus, causing symptoms like heavy menstrual bleeding and severe cramping. This process results in inflammation, thickening of the uterine wall, and can lead to enlargement of the uterus. Choice A: Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the vaginal wall. Choice B: Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen is incorrect because although estrogen can contribute to the growth of endometrial tissue, it is not the primary pathophysiologic process in adenomyosis. Choice D: Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall is incorrect because adenomyosis does not involve the growth of tumors, but rather the infiltration of endometrial tissue into the uterine muscle.
Question 5 of 9
The clinic nurse is caring for a 42-year-old male oncology patient. He complains of extreme fatigue and weakness after his first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it acknowledges the patient's symptoms, reassures monitoring, and addresses the cause. It validates his experience while offering a proactive approach. Choice B is incorrect as it dismisses the patient's symptoms and can cause distress. Choice C is incorrect because it generalizes the patient's experience and lacks individualized care. Choice D is incorrect as it may give false hope and oversimplifies the situation. A provides the best balance of empathy and information for the patient's well-being.
Question 6 of 9
The patient is asking the nurse about the best way to stay healthy. The nurse explains to the patient which teaching points? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Increasing physical activity helps in maintaining a healthy weight and overall health. 2. Regular exercise can reduce the risk of chronic diseases like heart disease and diabetes. 3. Physical activity improves mental health and overall well-being. 4. Exercise boosts immunity and helps in managing stress levels. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Keeping total fat intake to 10% or less is a specific dietary recommendation and not a comprehensive approach to staying healthy. C. Maintaining body weight in a healthy range is important but does not encompass all aspects of staying healthy. D. Choosing and preparing foods with little salt is a specific dietary recommendation and does not address the importance of physical activity in staying healthy.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has a decreased gag reflex, left-sided weakness, and drooling. Which action will the nurse take when feeding this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flex head with chin tuck. This position helps prevent aspiration by closing off the airway during swallowing. Flexing the head and tucking the chin promotes safe swallowing and reduces the risk of choking. Placing food on the left side (choice C) is not relevant to addressing the patient's symptoms. Positioning in semi-Fowler's (choice A) may not directly address the swallowing difficulty. Offering fruit juice (choice D) does not address the patient's specific feeding needs and may not be safe if the patient has swallowing difficulties.
Question 8 of 9
A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.
Question 9 of 9
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors. Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer. Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.