ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should the nurse monitor when caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a crucial parameter to monitor for clients on anticoagulant therapy, as it measures the effectiveness of the medication in preventing blood clots. By monitoring INR levels, the nurse can ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting complications. Choice A (Monitor platelet count) is incorrect because anticoagulant therapy does not directly affect platelet count, and monitoring platelets is more relevant for clients on antiplatelet therapy. Choice C (Monitor bleeding) is partially correct, but focusing solely on monitoring bleeding may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to anticoagulant therapy. Choice D (Monitor renal function) is incorrect as anticoagulant therapy primarily affects coagulation factors and not renal function. Renal function monitoring may be necessary for certain medications but is not a primary consideration for anticoagulant therapy.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being assessed. The nurse would expect to find which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema and proteinuria. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products effectively, leading to fluid retention (edema) and protein leaking into the urine (proteinuria). Edema occurs due to fluid buildup from decreased kidney function. Proteinuria is a result of damaged glomeruli in the kidneys, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Weight loss and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are not typical symptoms of CKD. Hypertension and tachycardia can occur in CKD due to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Hypothermia and bradycardia are not common symptoms of CKD and would be more indicative of other conditions.
Question 3 of 9
The major electrolytes in the extracellular fluid are:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: sodium and chloride. In the extracellular fluid, sodium and chloride are the major electrolytes due to their roles in maintaining fluid balance, nerve function, and muscle contraction. Potassium and phosphate (choice B) are primarily found in intracellular fluid, while potassium and chloride (choice A) are not the major electrolytes in extracellular fluid. Similarly, sodium and phosphate (choice D) are not major extracellular electrolytes. Thus, choice C is the correct answer based on the significant presence and functions of sodium and chloride in the extracellular fluid.
Question 4 of 9
A patient tells the nurse that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he "feels hot." This type of data would be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: subjective. Subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient's report of feeling nervous, nauseated, and hot is subjective because it reflects their personal sensations and cannot be measured or observed directly by the nurse. Objective data (choice A) is measurable and observable, such as vital signs or physical examination findings. Reflective (choice B) and introspective (choice D) do not accurately describe the type of data provided by the patient in this scenario. The patient's symptoms are subjective because they are based on the patient's own feelings and experiences, making choice C the most appropriate answer.
Question 5 of 9
Which technique should the nurse use to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination is palpation. Crepitus is a crackling or grating sensation that is felt when there is air trapped in the subcutaneous tissue. Palpation involves using the hands to feel for abnormalities such as crepitus. Percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help assess underlying structures, not to determine the presence of crepitus. Auscultation is listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope, which is not relevant for detecting crepitus.
Question 6 of 9
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
Question 7 of 9
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the immediate post-operative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises. This is prioritized in the immediate post-operative period to prevent respiratory complications like atelectasis and pneumonia. Deep breathing helps to expand the lungs and coughing helps clear secretions. Administering pain medication (A) is important but not the top priority. Monitoring for signs of infection (C) is crucial but usually done after ensuring respiratory stability. Providing solid food (D) is contraindicated initially to prevent post-operative complications like ileus.
Question 9 of 9
What is the most appropriate action when a client experiences chest pain and has a history of myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the recommended initial medication for chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. It helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing chest pain. Aspirin (choice B) is also usually given to reduce blood clot formation, but nitroglycerin is the priority for immediate relief. Morphine (choice C) may be used if nitroglycerin is ineffective, and beta blockers (choice D) are typically used for long-term management of heart conditions, not for immediate relief of chest pain.