ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
What should the nurse do when a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. Lowering the height helps relieve cramping by slowing down the flow of the enema, reducing discomfort for the patient. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it does not directly address the cramping issue. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, could potentially worsen the cramping by prolonging the discomfort. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, is also incorrect as it may intensify the cramping and cause more discomfort to the patient.
Question 2 of 5
What dietary changes should be implemented for a patient with GERD?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid mint and spicy foods. Patients with GERD should avoid mint and spicy foods because they can increase gastric acid production, exacerbating symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms due to lying down with a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter, promoting acid reflux. Choice D is also incorrect as drinking milk as a snack is not recommended for GERD patients, as it may temporarily soothe symptoms but can ultimately stimulate acid production.
Question 3 of 5
What should a healthcare professional monitor in a patient receiving insulin who is at risk for hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in patients receiving insulin who are at risk for hypoglycemia. Insulin can lower blood sugar levels, potentially leading to hypoglycemia, which can be harmful if not promptly recognized and managed. Checking blood glucose levels allows for early detection of low blood sugar levels, enabling timely interventions to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to monitoring for hypoglycemia in patients receiving insulin.
Question 4 of 5
What ECG changes should be monitored in a patient with hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flattened T waves and prominent U waves. In hypokalemia, there is a decrease in potassium levels, which can lead to ECG changes such as flattened T waves and prominent U waves. These changes are classic findings associated with hypokalemia. Choices B (Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes), C (Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes), and D (Widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude) are all incorrect. Elevated ST segments and wide QRS complexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia. Tall T waves and flattened QRS complexes, as well as widened QRS complexes and decreased P wave amplitude, do not represent the typical ECG changes seen in hypokalemia.
Question 5 of 5
What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.