What should the nurse do when a client develops a fever after surgery?

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Question 1 of 9

What should the nurse do when a client develops a fever after surgery?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's blood pressure. When a client develops a fever after surgery, it could indicate various causes, including infection or inflammatory response. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess circulatory status, as fever can lead to increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Administering antibiotics (choice A) should only be done if infection is confirmed. Monitoring temperature and assessing for infection (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority. Administering fluid resuscitation (choice D) may be necessary based on the client's overall condition but should be guided by monitoring blood pressure.

Question 2 of 9

Recent Canadian immigration statistics indicate that the majority of people in this country settle in:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: large-census metropolitan areas. This is supported by the fact that large cities like Toronto, Montreal, and Vancouver attract the most immigrants due to job opportunities, diverse communities, and cultural amenities. These cities offer better infrastructure and services compared to smaller areas, making them more appealing for settlement. Choices A and B are incorrect because smaller areas may lack the resources and opportunities that large cities provide. Choice D is incorrect as extremely large cities might be overwhelming and less conducive to successful integration for newcomers. Therefore, the majority of immigrants settling in Canada choose large-census metropolitan areas for better prospects and quality of life.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic liver disease about self-management. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because stopping medication without doctor's approval can be harmful. Step 1: Explain the importance of adhering to medication schedule in liver disease management. Step 2: Emphasize that feeling better doesn't mean the disease is cured. Step 3: Highlight potential consequences of stopping medication prematurely. Other choices are correct: A: Avoiding alcohol is essential. B: Following medication schedule is important. D: Maintaining a healthy diet supports liver function.

Question 4 of 9

What is the most effective intervention for a client with a history of respiratory distress?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps open airways, making it effective in treating respiratory distress. It works quickly to relieve symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Corticosteroids (B) may be used in conjunction with albuterol for severe cases, but albuterol is the immediate intervention. Providing pain relief (C) is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. Nebulizers (D) are a delivery method for medications like albuterol, but the key intervention is administering the medication itself.

Question 5 of 9

What should the nurse do first when a client presents with symptoms of sepsis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. The initial priority in managing sepsis is to restore perfusion and oxygenation by giving IV fluids to support blood pressure and organ perfusion. This helps to improve tissue oxygenation and prevents further organ damage. Administering insulin (choice B) is not the priority in the initial management of sepsis. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but not the first step in the management of sepsis. Administering insulin is also listed twice and is not relevant to the immediate management of sepsis.

Question 6 of 9

What should a nurse do if they observe a client sitting alone and talking to the voices?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking the client to describe the voices can help the nurse assess the situation and understand the client's experience better. This can provide valuable information for the nurse to determine the appropriate intervention or treatment. Leaving the client alone (B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation. Encouraging the client to talk about the voices (C) is helpful, but asking for a description first allows for a more systematic assessment. Telling the client there are no voices (D) is dismissive and denies the client's reality, which can be harmful and ineffective in providing appropriate care.

Question 7 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with severe nausea and vomiting after surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetics. This intervention helps to reduce nausea and vomiting by blocking the neurotransmitters responsible for triggering these symptoms. Administering antiemetics is the most direct and effective approach to address severe nausea and vomiting post-surgery. Choice B (Placing the client in a supine position) is incorrect because it does not directly address the underlying cause of nausea and vomiting. Choice C (Providing hydration) is important but may not alleviate the symptoms of severe nausea and vomiting. Choice D (Monitoring bowel sounds) is important for assessing gastrointestinal motility but does not directly address the immediate symptoms of nausea and vomiting.

Question 8 of 9

Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention is an example of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention falls under secondary prevention, which aims to detect and treat a disease early to prevent complications and further transmission. This intervention occurs after the client has already been diagnosed with gonorrhea, focusing on preventing reinfection and spreading the infection to others. A: Primary prevention focuses on preventing the disease from occurring in the first place, such as promoting safe sex practices to prevent gonorrhea infection. C: Tertiary prevention involves managing and preventing complications of a disease that has already occurred, which is not the case with teaching about reinfection prevention. D: Primary health care prevention is a broad term that encompasses various aspects of healthcare delivery, but it does not specifically address the prevention of reinfection in a client with gonorrhea.

Question 9 of 9

An example of a cognition area for the mental health examination is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orientation, as it assesses a person's awareness of time, place, and person. This is crucial for evaluating cognitive functioning in mental health exams. Speech (A) is related to communication, Perception (C) involves interpreting sensory information, and Judgement (D) pertains to decision-making skills. However, in the context of a mental health examination, assessing orientation is essential for understanding a person's cognitive status and ability to interact with their environment effectively.

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