What should the nurse do first for a client with a history of diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer glucose. In hypoglycemia, the priority is to raise the low blood sugar levels quickly. Administering glucose is the most direct and effective way to do so. Glucose will rapidly increase the blood sugar levels and help the client recover from hypoglycemia. Administering insulin (B) would further lower blood sugar levels. Administering glucagon (C) is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Encouraging deep breathing (D) is not effective in treating hypoglycemia and does not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A (Iron, folic acid, and B12) Rationale: 1. Iron: Renal failure patients often have anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production. 2. Folic acid and B12: Important for red blood cell production and maturation. 3. Corrects underlying causes of anemia in renal failure patients. Summary: B: Increasing protein doesn't directly address anemia in renal failure. C: Vitamin D and calcium are not primary treatments for anemia in renal failure. D: Calcium and folic acid alone do not address the specific deficiencies seen in renal failure anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to support kidney function and prevent further damage. IV fluids help improve renal perfusion and promote urine output. Hemodialysis may be necessary in severe cases but initial intervention is fluid resuscitation. Administering pain relief or morphine is not the priority in acute renal failure as addressing hydration status takes precedence over pain management.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Patient's age and mobility. Age and mobility are key factors in pressure ulcer development as elderly and immobile patients are at higher risk due to decreased circulation and pressure on skin. Family medical history (B) is not directly linked to pressure ulcers. Frequency of hospital visits (C) is not a determining factor, and patient's education level (D) does not directly impact pressure ulcer risk. In summary, assessing age and mobility helps identify high-risk patients for developing pressure ulcers.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because using the inhaler every time the patient feels short of breath, even without a flare-up, is not the recommended practice for managing COPD. Inhalers should be used as prescribed by the healthcare provider or only during exacerbations. Here's the rationale: 1. Using the inhaler excessively can lead to overuse of medication and potential side effects. 2. It is important for patients to differentiate between regular management and acute exacerbations. 3. Monitoring oxygen levels (choice D) is essential for COPD management. 4. Quitting smoking (choice A) and deep breathing exercises (choice B) are positive self-management strategies for COPD.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: increased fibrinogen. Heparin therapy works by inhibiting clot formation by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, which leads to decreased levels of fibrinogen. Therefore, an increase in fibrinogen levels would indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. Incorrect choices: A: increased platelet count - Heparin therapy does not typically affect platelet count, so an increase in platelet count would not indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy. C: decreased fibrin split products - Decreased fibrin split products may not necessarily indicate a positive response to Heparin therapy, as other factors can also influence their levels. D: decreased bleeding - While decreased bleeding can be a positive outcome of Heparin therapy, it is not a direct assessment finding that indicates a positive response to the therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because asking open-ended questions helps the patient express their feelings without feeling pressured. This approach allows the patient to share at their own pace and comfort level. Choice A may make the patient feel uncomfortable or pressured. Choice B may not address the underlying issue of the patient's avoidance of eye contact. Choice D is more direct and may not be effective if the patient is not ready to discuss their emotions. Ultimately, using open-ended questions promotes a safe and supportive environment for the patient to open up willingly.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. Yellowish brown skin coloration along with pink coloration of the hard and soft palate is indicative of jaundice, a condition characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin causes a yellowish discoloration of the skin but does not affect the color of the mucous membranes like the hard and soft palate. Pallor (A) refers to paleness of the skin due to decreased blood flow or anemia, not relevant in this case. Cyanosis (C) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, which is not consistent with the presented findings. Iron deficiency (D) may lead to pallor, but it does not cause yellowish brown skin coloration like jaundice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: sodium chloride. Intestinal suctioning in a client with an ileus leads to loss of fluids rich in sodium chloride. This loss can result in electrolyte imbalances and dehydration. Calcium (A), magnesium (B), and potassium (C) are not typically lost in significant amounts through intestinal suctioning in the context of an ileus. Therefore, sodium chloride is the most likely electrolyte to be lost in this scenario.