Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

Question 2 of 5

A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.

Question 3 of 5

When documenting an incorrect dose of medication administered, which fact related to the incident report should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should document the time the medication was given in the client's medical record when an incorrect dose is administered. Recording the time is crucial for establishing the sequence of events accurately. Choices B, C, and D, though important, are not directly relevant to documenting the incident of administering an incorrect dose of medication. The client's response to the medication, the actual dose administered, and the reason for the error may be documented for overall patient care but are not specifically required in the incident report for an incorrect dose.

Question 4 of 5

A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (Choice A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (Choice B) and measuring the client's pain level (Choice C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.

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