ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should be the first step in managing a client with suspected spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first step is to immobilize the spine (A) in a suspected spinal cord injury to prevent further damage. This helps to stabilize the spine and prevent any potential movement that could worsen the injury. Providing pain relief (B) should come after immobilization. Assessing for signs of spinal shock (C) is important but comes after immobilization. Placing the client in a supine position (D) can be part of immobilization but is not the first step.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has a normal pupillary light reflex. The nurse recognizes this to indicate that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a normal pupillary light reflex involves the constriction of both pupils in response to bright light. This reflex is controlled by the autonomic nervous system, specifically the parasympathetic nervous system. When light is detected by the retina, signals are sent to the brain which then triggers the constriction of both pupils to reduce the amount of light entering the eye. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the pupillary light reflex. Vision convergence, light reflection, and focusing the image at the center of the pupil are not directly related to the pupillary light reflex.
Question 4 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 5 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of smoking. The patient reports a persistent cough that has worsened over the past few months. The nurse would be most concerned about the possibility of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient's history of smoking, persistent cough, and worsening symptoms over months are indicative of COPD, a progressive lung disease commonly caused by smoking. Asthma (A) typically presents with intermittent symptoms, bronchitis (C) may cause cough but not necessarily worsening over time, and pulmonary embolism (D) is characterized by sudden onset symptoms and is less likely in this case. COPD is the most concerning due to the patient's smoking history and progressive symptoms.
Question 7 of 9
What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues is "A: Impaired Physical Mobility." This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's limited ability to move due to the disease's impact on coordination and muscle control. Impaired Physical Mobility addresses the specific issue of gait problems commonly seen in Parkinson's patients. Choice B, "Impaired Role Performance," does not directly address the physical limitations caused by the disease. Choice C, "Ineffective Role Performance," focuses more on the client's inability to fulfill societal roles rather than the physical aspect of gait issues. Choice D, "Powerlessness," does not capture the primary concern of impaired movement and mobility in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client develops severe shortness of breath after surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. This is the priority intervention to address severe shortness of breath, ensuring the client receives adequate oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen saturation levels and supports respiratory function. Encouraging deep breathing (B) may exacerbate the client's distress. Elevating the head of the bed (C) can help improve breathing but does not address the immediate need for oxygen. Administering antibiotics (D) is not indicated for shortness of breath unless there is an underlying infection causing it.
Question 9 of 9
A 28-year-old Aboriginal woman attending a prenatal visit describes her nutritional intake over the past 24 hours to the nurse. It includes two slices of pizza, two cans of soda, and three cookies. The nurse must:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: discuss how the patient's food choices may affect her health and that of her baby. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the potential impact of the patient's current diet on her health and the health of her baby during pregnancy. By discussing the implications of her food choices, the nurse can educate the patient on the importance of a balanced and nutritious diet for a healthy pregnancy. This approach promotes awareness and empowers the patient to make informed decisions for her and her baby's well-being. Incorrect choices: A: This option does not provide guidance or education on improving the patient's diet, which is crucial for a healthy pregnancy. B: Focusing on weight gain rather than nutritional content may not address the underlying issue of poor dietary choices. C: Assuming the patient's ability to cook or go grocery shopping may not address the immediate need for dietary education and guidance.