ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should a nurse base their response on when a client asks about an increase in opioid dose for chronic pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tolerance is a physiological phenomenon where the body adapts to a drug, requiring higher doses for the same effect. This is a common occurrence with opioids in chronic pain management. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to drug-seeking behavior, not tolerance. Choice C is incorrect because addiction and physical dependence are different concepts. Choice D is incorrect as it relates to a specific scenario of substance abuse alongside chronic pain, not the mechanism behind the need for increased opioid doses in chronic pain management.
Question 2 of 9
What is the priority action for a client who presents with symptoms of stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a CT scan. This is the priority action because it helps determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, guiding treatment decisions. Monitoring blood pressure (B) is important but not the priority. Administering aspirin (C) can be considered after confirming the type of stroke. Administering thrombolytics (D) is indicated for ischemic stroke but should only be done after ruling out hemorrhagic stroke with a CT scan.
Question 3 of 9
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being assessed. The nurse would expect to find which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema and proteinuria. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products effectively, leading to fluid retention (edema) and protein leaking into the urine (proteinuria). Edema occurs due to fluid buildup from decreased kidney function. Proteinuria is a result of damaged glomeruli in the kidneys, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Weight loss and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are not typical symptoms of CKD. Hypertension and tachycardia can occur in CKD due to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Hypothermia and bradycardia are not common symptoms of CKD and would be more indicative of other conditions.
Question 6 of 9
Which medication should be administered first for a client with acute asthma exacerbation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing Albuterol as the correct answer: 1. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that provides immediate relief by relaxing the airway muscles during asthma exacerbation. 2. It is the first-line medication recommended by guidelines for acute asthma attacks due to its quick onset of action. 3. Albuterol helps in opening the airways, improving airflow, and relieving symptoms like shortness of breath and wheezing. 4. Epinephrine is not the first choice for asthma exacerbation as it can have more systemic side effects. 5. Levalbuterol is a similar medication to Albuterol but may not be as widely available or cost-effective. 6. IV corticosteroids are important for long-term control but take longer to show effects, making them less suitable as the initial treatment for acute exacerbation.
Question 7 of 9
What is the priority nursing intervention for a client with a history of asthma experiencing wheezing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with asthma experiencing wheezing is to administer oxygen. Wheezing indicates airway constriction and decreased oxygenation, making oxygen crucial for adequate tissue perfusion. Administering oxygen helps improve oxygen levels, alleviate respiratory distress, and prevent hypoxemia. Applying a bronchodilator (Choice B) may be beneficial after oxygen is administered. Applying a cold compress (Choice C) is not indicated for asthma exacerbations, and encouraging deep breathing (Choice D) may worsen respiratory distress in a client with wheezing. In summary, administering oxygen is the priority intervention to address the immediate respiratory needs of the client with asthma and wheezing.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most appropriate action when a client experiences chest pain and has a history of myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the recommended initial medication for chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. It helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing chest pain. Aspirin (choice B) is also usually given to reduce blood clot formation, but nitroglycerin is the priority for immediate relief. Morphine (choice C) may be used if nitroglycerin is ineffective, and beta blockers (choice D) are typically used for long-term management of heart conditions, not for immediate relief of chest pain.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the immediate post-operative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises. This is prioritized in the immediate post-operative period to prevent respiratory complications like atelectasis and pneumonia. Deep breathing helps to expand the lungs and coughing helps clear secretions. Administering pain medication (A) is important but not the top priority. Monitoring for signs of infection (C) is crucial but usually done after ensuring respiratory stability. Providing solid food (D) is contraindicated initially to prevent post-operative complications like ileus.