ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should a nurse assess for in a client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspect for visible pulsation. This is because an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should have a visible pulsation, indicating proper blood flow. Palpating for thrill (B) and auscultating for bruit (C) are also common assessments for an arteriovenous fistula, but inspecting for visible pulsation is the most direct and reliable way to assess the patency of the fistula. Percussing for dullness (D) is not relevant in this context as it does not provide information about the vascular access site.
Question 2 of 9
What is the most appropriate action when a parent crosses their arms and legs during an interview?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because crossing arms and legs can indicate defensiveness or discomfort, which may suggest the parent is uneasy discussing their son's treatment. This nonverbal cue could signal a need for empathy and sensitivity in communication. Choice A is incorrect as it overlooks the significance of body language. Choice B assumes comfort without considering the context. Choice C assumes tiredness without considering other possibilities. Understanding body language cues can help in building rapport and addressing concerns effectively.
Question 3 of 9
Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client who is experiencing a seizure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering antiepileptic medications. This is because during an active seizure, the priority is to stop the seizure activity. Antiepileptic medications are specifically designed to prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of seizures. Placing the client on their side and protecting their head (choice A) is important for safety but does not address stopping the seizure. Loosening clothing and ensuring safety (choice B) is also important but does not directly address the seizure itself. Monitoring airway and giving oxygen (choice C) is crucial but does not actively stop the seizure. Therefore, administering antiepileptic medications is the most appropriate intervention to address the root cause of the seizure.
Question 4 of 9
Which is included only in a comprehensive assessment?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Complete health history. In a comprehensive assessment, obtaining a complete health history is essential to gather information about the patient's past and present health conditions, including medical history, family history, social history, and current symptoms. This information helps the healthcare provider understand the patient's overall health status, identify risk factors, and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Assessing the circulatory system (A) and airway (B) are important components of a physical assessment, but they alone do not constitute a comprehensive assessment. Disability assessment (D) focuses on the functional limitations caused by a disability and is not always included in a comprehensive health assessment.
Question 5 of 9
A woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe itching on her lower legs. Upon examination, the nurse notices red, scaly patches on the skin. The nurse suspects that this is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, which align with the symptoms described. Psoriasis commonly affects the lower legs and is associated with severe itching. Eczema (choice B) is characterized by red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches, but typically presents differently from psoriasis. Contact dermatitis (choice C) is a localized reaction that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen, and fungal infections (choice D) typically present with itching, redness, and sometimes peeling skin, but not necessarily scaly patches like psoriasis.
Question 6 of 9
Which quadrant of the abdomen is tender in suspected appendicitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct quadrant for tenderness in suspected appendicitis is the lower right quadrant (Choice C). This is because the appendix is located in the lower right abdomen. Appendicitis typically presents with pain starting around the navel and then localizing to the lower right quadrant. The other choices, upper right (Choice A), upper left (Choice B), and lower left (Choice D) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical location of the appendix. Upper right quadrant is where the liver and gallbladder are situated, upper left quadrant contains the stomach and spleen, and lower left quadrant has the colon and left ovary/testis.
Question 7 of 9
Which is an inappropriate item in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transfuse neutrophils. Neutrophil transfusion is not a standard treatment for neutropenia as neutrophils do not survive well outside the body. For the other choices: B: Excluding raw vegetables is correct to prevent infection. C: Avoiding rectal suppositories is correct to prevent mucosal injury. D: Prohibiting vases of fresh flowers is correct to prevent exposure to fungal spores. So, transfusing neutrophils is inappropriate as it is not a standard treatment for neutropenia.
Question 8 of 9
What should be the nurse's first action when caring for a client with a traumatic amputation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action is A: Apply pressure and elevate the limb. This is because applying pressure helps control bleeding and elevating the limb reduces blood flow to the area, minimizing further blood loss. This immediate intervention is crucial in managing the traumatic amputation and preventing complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Stopping bleeding and controlling shock can be important but not the first action. C: Placing the client in a Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is contraindicated in cases of traumatic amputation as it can increase bleeding. D: Placing the client in a sitting position is not appropriate as it can worsen bleeding and lead to further complications.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements about the mental health examination is true?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the mental health examination should be integrated into the health history interview. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's mental health status. Gathering mental health information during the health history interview is crucial as it provides insight into the patient's current mental state, past history, and potential risk factors. This integrated approach is efficient and effective in assessing the patient's mental health needs. A is incorrect because while family input can be valuable, it is not always the best or only resource for information about coping skills. C is incorrect as integrating the mental health examination into the health history interview should not necessarily take an enormous amount of extra time if done efficiently. D is incorrect as a complete mental health examination may not always be necessary to assess the patient's level of functioning; integrating mental health information into the health history interview can often provide sufficient insight.