Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer. Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.

Question 2 of 5

A client was brought to the emergency room with complains of difficulty of breathing. What can lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C being correct: 1. Restlessness: Indicates increased work of breathing and hypoxia. 2. Suprasternal retractions: Sign of respiratory distress. 3. paO2 of 62: Indicates severe hypoxemia, common in ARDS. Summary: A: Enlarged heart on x-ray does not directly indicate ARDS. B: Thick green sputum suggests infection, not specific to ARDS. D: Wheezes and slow respirations are not typical of ARDS, and pCO2 is normal in ARDS.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is completing a care plan. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nursing diagnostic statement Impaired skin integrity related to shearing forces?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because turning the patient every 2 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers caused by shearing forces. This intervention redistributes pressure, improving blood flow to the skin, thus reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Administering pain medication (A) does not directly address the skin integrity issue. Monitoring vital signs (C) is important but does not address skin integrity. Keeping bed rails up (D) may actually increase the risk of shearing forces.

Question 4 of 5

Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client care fully for which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypocortisolism. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the pituitary gland is removed or partially removed, leading to decreased cortisol production. Signs of hypocortisolism include weakness, fatigue, hypotension, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Hyperglycemia (B) is not typically associated with this procedure. Hypoglycemia (C) is not a common concern post-hypophysectomy. Hypercalcemia (D) is not directly related to pituitary gland removal. Therefore, assessing for hypocortisolism is crucial for early detection and management post-surgery.

Question 5 of 5

The effectiveness of Levodopa can be reduced when taking:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pyridoxine. Pyridoxine can reduce the effectiveness of Levodopa by converting it into dopamine before it reaches the brain, decreasing the therapeutic effects. Bromocriptine and Amantadine are actually used in combination with Levodopa to enhance its effects by different mechanisms. Choosing Amantadine as the answer is incorrect because it is listed twice in the choices and would not interfere with Levodopa's effectiveness.

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