ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 10th Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. This is because regular screening with both tests can help detect prostate cancer early. The digital rectal exam allows the doctor to feel for any abnormalities in the prostate gland, while the PSA test measures the levels of a specific protein produced by the prostate gland. If there are any concerning findings, further diagnostic tests can be done to confirm prostate cancer. Choice B is incorrect because transrectal ultrasound is not a recommended screening test for prostate cancer. Choice C is incorrect as testicular self-examinations are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. Choice D is incorrect as CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client with Alzheimer’s disease: 'Disturbed Thought Processes related to Alzheimer’s disease as evidenced by incoherent language.' Which part of this diagnosis is considered the problem statement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed thought processes. This is the problem statement because it identifies the specific nursing diagnosis that reflects the client's cognitive impairment. "Disturbed thought processes" directly addresses the issue the nurse is observing in the client. The other choices are not the problem statement. "Related to" is the etiology or cause of the problem, "Alzheimer’s disease" is the medical condition, and "Incoherent language" is the defining characteristic or evidence of the problem. Therefore, A is the correct answer as it clearly states the client's primary issue.
Question 3 of 9
While completing an admission database, the nurse is interviewing a patient who states “I am allergic to latex.” Which action will the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ask the patient to describe the type of reaction. First, the nurse needs to assess the severity of the latex allergy to determine the appropriate interventions. Understanding the type of reaction can help guide treatment and prevent future exposure. Isolating the patient (choice A) is not necessary unless there is a severe reaction. Terminating the interview (choice C) prematurely is not appropriate as crucial information may be missed. Documenting the allergy (choice D) is important but not as urgent as assessing the reaction type.
Question 4 of 9
A client was brought to the emergency room with complains of difficulty of breathing. What can lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C being correct: 1. Restlessness: Indicates increased work of breathing and hypoxia. 2. Suprasternal retractions: Sign of respiratory distress. 3. paO2 of 62: Indicates severe hypoxemia, common in ARDS. Summary: A: Enlarged heart on x-ray does not directly indicate ARDS. B: Thick green sputum suggests infection, not specific to ARDS. D: Wheezes and slow respirations are not typical of ARDS, and pCO2 is normal in ARDS.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse will monitor J.E. for the following signs and symptoms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because signs and symptoms listed are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is a serious condition where blood clotting and bleeding occur simultaneously. Change in level of consciousness can indicate hypoperfusion from clotting in blood vessels. Tachypnea and tachycardia can result from tissue hypoxia. Petechiae are small red or purple spots on the skin due to bleeding under the skin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical signs and symptoms of DIC. Choice B suggests a possible myocardial infarction or acute coronary syndrome. Choice C indicates a possible thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or acute limb ischemia. Choice D suggests a mix of symptoms that do not typically present together in DIC.
Question 6 of 9
A goal for a patient with diabetes is to demonstrate effective coping skills. Which patient behavior will indicate to the nurse achievement of this outcome?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because stating feeling better after talking with family and friends demonstrates the use of healthy coping skills. This behavior indicates the patient is seeking and utilizing social support, which is crucial for managing stress and emotions effectively in diabetes management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consuming high-carbohydrate foods when stressed can lead to poor blood sugar control, disliking support group meetings indicates avoidance of beneficial support resources, and spending most of the day in bed can contribute to physical and emotional deterioration, rather than effective coping.
Question 7 of 9
Management of hypercalcemia includes all of the following actions except administration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because administration of the diuretic furosemide without saline is not recommended for managing hypercalcemia. Furosemide can lead to volume depletion and potentially exacerbate hypercalcemia by concentrating calcium levels in the blood. A: Fluid administration helps dilute calcium levels by increasing urine output. C: Inorganic phosphate salts can bind with calcium in the gut, reducing absorption. D: Intravenous phosphate therapy can help lower calcium levels by promoting calcium-phosphate complex formation. In summary, B is incorrect as it may worsen hypercalcemia, while A, C, and D are valid strategies for managing hypercalcemia.
Question 8 of 9
A client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provide by which type of white blood cell?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lymphocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in adaptive immunity. They include T cells and B cells, which are responsible for recognizing and attacking specific pathogens. T cells help regulate the immune response and directly attack infected cells, while B cells produce antibodies to target pathogens. Neutrophils (A), monocytes (B), and basophils (C) are important for innate immunity, not adaptive immunity. Neutrophils are phagocytic cells that engulf and destroy pathogens, monocytes differentiate into macrophages to engulf pathogens, and basophils are involved in allergic reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is D because lymphocytes are key players in adaptive immunity.
Question 9 of 9
During the evaluation phase, what key action does the nurse perform?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the evaluation phase, the nurse performs the key action of determining the effectiveness of the care plan. This involves assessing whether the client's goals are being met, if interventions are achieving the desired outcomes, and if any modifications are necessary. This step is crucial to ensure the care plan is successful and the client's needs are being addressed appropriately. Choice A is incorrect because diagnosing the client's condition is typically done in the assessment phase, not during evaluation. Choice B is incorrect as identifying nursing interventions is part of the planning phase. Choice D is incorrect as developing goals and outcomes is part of the planning phase as well. Overall, the evaluation phase focuses on assessing the effectiveness of the care plan rather than diagnosing, identifying interventions, or developing goals.