What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

What should a healthcare provider monitor for in a patient with HIV and a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise in a patient with HIV. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because the patient is at high risk of developing opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), dehydration (choice C), and bleeding (choice D) are not directly associated with a low CD4 T-cell count in patients with HIV.

Question 2 of 9

What is the initial nursing action for a patient with a chest tube found to have an air leak?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient with a chest tube is found to have an air leak, the priority action for the nurse is to check the tube connections. This step helps identify the source of the air leak, which can be caused by loose or disconnected tube connections. Once the source of the leak is identified and addressed, further interventions may be necessary. Replacing or removing and reinserting the chest tube should not be the initial response unless there are specific indications for these actions. Documenting the incident is important but comes after addressing the immediate concern of the air leak.

Question 3 of 9

What is the appropriate electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the correct electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse. This procedure delivers a synchronized electrical shock to the heart during a specific phase of the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation (choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (choice C) is typically used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (choice D) may be used in some cases, but in the scenario of ventricular tachycardia with a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred intervention.

Question 4 of 9

What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

Question 5 of 9

What are the signs and symptoms of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irritability, confusion, restlessness. These are common signs of Increased Intracranial Pressure (IICP) as they result from the increased pressure on brain tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fatigue and shortness of breath (SOB) are not typical symptoms of IICP. Changes in pupillary response can be seen in other conditions but are not specific to IICP. Elevated blood pressure is not a common sign of IICP.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level. What should the nurse monitor for?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse administers insulin for a misread glucose level, they should monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin lowers blood sugar levels, so the patient may experience hypoglycemia if given insulin unnecessarily. Monitoring for hypoglycemia involves observing for symptoms such as shakiness, sweating, dizziness, confusion, and palpitations. Choices B and C are incorrect because administering insulin for a misread glucose level would lower blood sugar levels, resulting in hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia or hyperkalemia. Choice D is not the immediate priority; the focus should be on patient safety and monitoring for potential adverse effects of the unnecessary insulin.

Question 7 of 9

What should the nurse do for a patient experiencing abdominal cramping during enema administration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the enema solution container. This action helps relieve the cramping by slowing down the flow of the solution. Choice B, stopping the procedure and removing the tubing, is incorrect as it is too drastic and may not address the cramping. Choice C, continuing the enema at a slower rate, may exacerbate the cramping if the flow rate is still too high. Choice D, increasing the flow of the enema solution, would worsen the cramping and is not the appropriate intervention.

Question 8 of 9

What are the priority lab values to monitor in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 count below 180 cells/mm3 is considered severe immunocompromise and requires close monitoring and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority lab values to monitor in HIV patients. While white blood cell count, hemoglobin levels, and serum albumin levels can provide valuable information about the patient's health status, they are not as specific or indicative of HIV disease progression and management as the CD4 T-cell count.

Question 9 of 9

What dietary recommendations are given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus intake can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys may not be able to excrete it efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease, as it can contribute to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as protein restriction is commonly advised for individuals with advanced kidney disease to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing protein intake can further burden the kidneys.

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