ATI RN
Intro to Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
What serious adverse reaction can occur with the loop diuretic Furosemide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can rarely lead to a serious adverse reaction known as Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be life-threatening and typically involves painful blistering and shedding of the skin. This reaction is considered a serious medical emergency and requires immediate medical attention. It is crucial to monitor for any signs of skin changes or reactions while using Furosemide and report them to a healthcare provider promptly.
Question 2 of 9
A 36-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being involved in a one-car motor vehicle accident where his car struck a telephone pole. He is a known chronic alcoholic. He smells alcohol on his breath, and his blood alcohol level is 300 mg/dL. Which of the following treatments should be given to him if he goes into alcohol withdrawal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal in a chronic alcoholic (300 mg/dL) requires lorazepam . This benzodiazepine mimics alcohol's GABA enhancement, preventing seizures and agitation. Buspirone treats anxiety, not withdrawal. Pentobarbital is excessive. Phenytoin targets seizures alone. Saline (E) supports but doesn't treat. Lorazepam's safety is key.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the orders for a patient and notes a new order for an angiotensin-
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, a type of angiotensin inhibitor, may have a serious interaction with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). When used together, they may reduce the effectiveness of the ACE inhibitor in lowering blood pressure and could potentially lead to decreased kidney function. It is important for the nurse to be aware of this interaction and monitor the patient closely for any adverse effects when these medications are used concurrently.
Question 4 of 9
Androgen is secreted by
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Androgens, mainly testosterone, are secreted by the testes' Leydig cells, activated by pituitary LH, making the testes the source. FSH regulates sperm, not androgens. GnRH from the hypothalamus triggers LH/FSH release, indirectly affecting androgens. The pituitary releases LH/FSH, not androgens. The testes' direct secretion role is fundamental, driven by LH, distinguishing it from regulatory hormones.
Question 5 of 9
Which combination of local anesthesia produces EMLA ( Eutectic Mixture of Local Anesthetics):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMLA (Eutectic Mixture of Local Anesthetics) is a commonly used topical local anesthetic cream. It contains a combination of lidocaine and prilocaine. This combination of local anesthetics work together to provide effective pain relief when applied to the skin before certain medical procedures like needle insertion, laser treatment, or minor skin surgeries. Lidocaine and prilocaine work by blocking nerve signals in the skin, reducing sensations of pain and discomfort in the area where the cream is applied.
Question 6 of 9
Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for maintaining sleep and wakefulness?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The reticular activating system (RAS) in the brainstem regulates sleep-wake cycles, promoting alertness or rest, per neurophysiology. The cortex processes thought, not cycles. The limbic system drives emotion, not sleep directly. The cerebellum coordinates movement. RAS's role is central, controlling consciousness states.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is conducting medication education about the difference between potency and efficacy to a group of patients. The nurse correctly determines that learning has occurred when the patients make which response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Efficacy (max effect) trumps potency (dose needed) for ‘best'-a high-efficacy drug fully relieves symptoms, unlike high-potency alone. Potency doesn't guarantee outcome. Efficacy doesn't mean fewer side effects-safety varies. Low-potency drugs can be effective but aren't side-effect-free. Greatest efficacy reflects learning, prioritizing treatment success.
Question 8 of 9
The physician orders penicillin for a female client who has a sinus infection. What is a priority question to ask the client prior to administering the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Penicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic, is generally safe (Category B) but requires pregnancy status clarification before administration. Pregnancy alters drug metabolism and dosing, and while penicillin poses minimal fetal risk, confirming status ensures no hypersensitivity or rare contraindications are overlooked, prioritizing maternal and fetal safety. Future pregnancy plans are less immediate, affecting long-term considerations, not current use. Breastfeeding matters due to minimal excretion in milk, but it's secondary to current pregnancy. Birth control interaction is negligible with penicillin, unlike other antibiotics. Asking 'Are you pregnant?' addresses the most urgent safety concern, aligning with nursing's role in preventing adverse outcomes, making A the priority question before initiating therapy.
Question 9 of 9
The following drugs undergo phase II metabolism by hepatic acetylation enzymes (N-acetyltransferases):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Isoniazid undergoes phase II acetylation via hepatic N-acetyltransferases, and the rate of metabolism can vary between slow and fast acetylators.