What region of the limbic lobe is responsible for generating stress responses via the hypothalamus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: amygdala. The amygdala is responsible for generating stress responses through its connections with the hypothalamus. It plays a crucial role in processing emotions, including fear and anxiety. The hippocampus (A) is involved in memory formation, not stress responses. The mammillary bodies (C) are part of the hypothalamus but are not directly responsible for generating stress responses. The prefrontal cortex (D) is involved in decision-making and impulse control, not stress responses. Thus, the amygdala is the correct choice for its specific role in triggering stress responses via the hypothalamus.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: neurocysticercosis. Neurocysticercosis is the most common cause of adult onset epilepsy worldwide. It is caused by the larval stage of the tapeworm Taenia solium. The larvae can infect the brain and lead to seizures. Neurotoxoplasmosis (B) is more commonly associated with HIV patients. Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (C) is caused by the amoeba Naegleria fowleri and is rare. African trypanosomiasis (D) does not typically cause epilepsy. Therefore, neurocysticercosis is the most important cause of adult onset epilepsy due to its global prevalence and direct impact on the brain leading to seizures.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: White blood cells (WBC) in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). In meningitis, an infection of the meninges, the CSF will show an elevated WBC count indicating an inflammatory response. This finding is crucial for confirming the diagnosis as it directly reflects the presence of infection in the central nervous system. A: While a Glasgow Coma Scale score <15 may indicate altered mental status, it is not specific to meningitis. B: Pseudomonas aeruginosa on blood culture suggests a bacterial infection but does not confirm meningitis specifically. C: A normal MRI may not show definitive signs of meningitis, as the diagnosis is primarily made through CSF analysis.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Patients with somatic symptom disorders often experience health anxiety. 2. Symptoms provide a form of relief or distraction from this anxiety. 3. Understanding this helps nurses plan effective care by addressing underlying anxiety. 4. Option D is correct as it directly addresses the role of symptoms in providing relief. Summary: - Option A is incorrect because chronicity does not explain the reluctance to give up symptoms. - Option B is incorrect as having a physiological basis does not necessarily relate to difficulty giving up symptoms. - Option C is incorrect because symptoms in somatic system disorders are typically not voluntarily controlled.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Somatic system disorders involve physical symptoms with no apparent medical cause. Step 2: Faulty perceptions of body sensations can lead to exaggerated or misinterpreted physical symptoms. Step 3: This can result in somatic system disorders like hypochondriasis or somatic symptom disorder. Step 4: Traumatic childhood events (choice B) may contribute to psychological disorders but are not specific to somatic system disorders. Step 5: Culture-bound phenomena (choice C) and mood instability (choice D) are not primary causes of somatic system disorders. Summary: The correct answer is A because faulty perceptions of body sensations can directly contribute to somatic system disorders, while the other choices are not directly related to the development of these disorders.