ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What psychosocial factors may potentially contribute to the development of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer A: Altered sleep/rest patterns can disrupt insulin regulation, leading to glucose imbalance and predisposing to diabetic ketoacidosis. Lack of sleep affects hormones that regulate blood sugar levels, increasing the risk of DKA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Eating disorder can affect blood sugar control but is not a direct cause of DKA. C: Exposure to influenza may trigger stress on the body but is not a psychosocial factor contributing to DKA. D: High levels of stress can impact blood sugar levels but are not specific psychosocial factors leading to DKA.
Question 2 of 9
An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide has begun a formal exercise program at a local gym. While exercising on the treadmill, the individual becomes pale, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a headache. The individual feels as though she is going to pass out. What is the individual’s priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates. In this scenario, the individual is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia due to the combination of glipizide (which can lower blood sugar) and exercise. The priority action is to raise blood sugar levels quickly to prevent further complications. Consuming simple carbohydrates, like glucose tablets or juice, will rapidly increase blood sugar levels. This is crucial to prevent the individual from passing out or experiencing more serious consequences. Choice A is incorrect because while hydration is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as going to the first-aid station may waste valuable time when immediate action is needed. Choice D is incorrect as taking another dose of the oral agent can further lower blood sugar levels and worsen the hypoglycemia.
Question 3 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department with the following clinical signs: Pulse: 132 beats/min Blood pressure: 88/50 mm Hg Respiratory rate: 32 breaths/min Temperature: 8°F Chest x-ray: Findings consistent with congestive heart failure Cardiac rhythm: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response These signs are consistent with which disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The clinical signs indicate a hypermetabolic state with tachycardia, hypotension, tachypnea, and potential fever, typical of a thyroid storm. The presence of congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation further support this diagnosis due to the hyperthyroid state exacerbating cardiovascular symptoms. Adrenal crisis (A) would present with hypotension and shock, but not with the hypermetabolic state seen here. Myxedema coma (B) would present with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status, which are not present in this case. SIADH (C) would typically present with hyponatremia and concentrated urine, which are not seen here.
Question 4 of 9
What psychosocial factors may potentially contribute to the development of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer A: Altered sleep/rest patterns can disrupt insulin regulation, leading to glucose imbalance and predisposing to diabetic ketoacidosis. Lack of sleep affects hormones that regulate blood sugar levels, increasing the risk of DKA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Eating disorder can affect blood sugar control but is not a direct cause of DKA. C: Exposure to influenza may trigger stress on the body but is not a psychosocial factor contributing to DKA. D: High levels of stress can impact blood sugar levels but are not specific psychosocial factors leading to DKA.
Question 5 of 9
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Contrast dyes can cause kidney injury due to their nephrotoxic effects. 2. Serum creatinine levels are a reliable indicator of kidney function. 3. Evaluating serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure allows detection of any contrast-induced kidney injury. 4. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in early identification and intervention for renal complications. Summary: A: Incorrect. Urine output alone is not a definitive indicator of kidney injury. C: Incorrect. Renal ultrasound is not typically used for detecting contrast-induced kidney injury. D: Incorrect. Postvoid residual volume is not specific for contrast-induced kidney injury.
Question 6 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Slow continuous ultrafiltration is a method used to remove excess plasma water in cases of volume overload, making choice A the correct answer. This process does not involve adding dialysate (choice C) or combining ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis (choice D). While ultrafiltration does involve the removal of fluids and solutes, it is primarily achieved through ultrafiltration rather than convection (choice B).
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Increased ability to excrete drugs. Rationale: 1. Renal insufficiency impairs kidney function, leading to decreased excretion of drugs. 2. In elderly patients with renal insufficiency, there may be compensatory mechanisms to enhance drug excretion. 3. This increased ability to excrete drugs helps prevent drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Summary: A: Increased GFR is not expected in renal insufficiency; it typically decreases. B: Serum creatinine level would likely be elevated in renal insufficiency, not normal. D: Hypokalemia is not a typical lab finding in renal insufficiency; hyperkalemia is more common.
Question 8 of 9
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Explanation: A: Acidosis is a common reason to initiate dialysis in acute kidney injury due to impaired acid-base balance. B: Hypokalemia is not a common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury. C: Volume overload may require dialysis but is not as common as acidosis. D: Hyperkalemia is a valid reason for dialysis but not as common as acidosis in acute kidney injury.
Question 9 of 9
The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, “When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?” The nurse should reply,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.” This is because arteriovenous fistulas typically require a maturation period of 4 to 6 weeks before they can be used for dialysis. During this time, the fistula will develop into a strong, durable access point for hemodialysis. Choice A is incorrect because the fistula needs time to mature before it can be used, and immediate use may damage it. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the maturation period required. Choice D is incorrect as the maturation time does not depend on the manufacturer but on the patient's physiology and healing process.