What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Granuloma formation. In response to tuberculosis antigen (tuberculin), the immune system forms a granuloma at the injection site as a defense mechanism. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen and prevent its spread. This process involves macrophages, T cells, and fibroblasts. Choice A (Cells cytotoxity) is incorrect because tuberculin test does not involve direct cell cytotoxicity. Choice B (Reagin type cytotoxity) is incorrect as reagin type hypersensitivity is associated with allergic reactions, not granuloma formation. Choice D (Immunocomplex cytotoxity) is also incorrect as immunocomplex cytotoxicity refers to tissue damage caused by immune complexes, not granuloma formation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Doxycycline. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those causing infections like Lyme disease and pneumonia. Doxycycline is often the first-line treatment for these infections due to its efficacy and low risk of resistance. Chloramphenicol (B) has serious side effects and is reserved for specific cases. Penicillin (C) is not effective against all bacteria and may not cover the specific infection. Streptomycin (D) is mainly used for certain types of bacterial infections and is not the optimal choice for the conditions mentioned in the question.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 chromosome. Bacterial cells typically have a singular circular chromosome that contains their genetic material. This chromosome is essential for the cell's survival and contains all the necessary genetic information for its functions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they refer to the chromosome numbers found in human cells (23 pairs or 46 individual chromosomes). Bacteria, being prokaryotic organisms, have a simpler genetic makeup compared to eukaryotic organisms like humans, hence they possess only one chromosome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters point to Staphylococcus or Micrococcus. 2. Catalase-positive eliminates Streptococcus. 3. Coagulase-positive distinguishes Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Thus, the causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. - C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative. - D: Micrococcus luteus is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cloudy surface indicates that the bacteria are growing where oxygen is present (aerobes), causing turbidity. The clear bottom suggests that the bacteria are not growing in the absence of oxygen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the observed phenomena do not necessarily indicate the need for an anaerobic chamber, enzyme deficiencies, or the microorganism being non-aerotolerant.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin, as it is not a primary immunodeficiency disease. Primary immunodeficiency diseases are genetic disorders that affect the immune system's ability to fight infections. A: Glanzmann-Riniker hypergammaglobulinemia is a rare primary immunodeficiency characterized by elevated levels of gammaglobulins. C: Variable hypogammaglobulinemia is a primary immunodeficiency disease where there are fluctuating levels of gammaglobulins. D: Bruton hypogammaglobulinemia, also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia, is a primary immunodeficiency characterized by a lack of B cells and gammaglobulins. In summary, B is the correct answer as gamma globulin is not a primary immunodeficiency disease, whereas A, C, and D are all examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases affecting gammaglobulins levels.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is Gram-positive, spore-forming, anaerobic, and produces gas. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with wound infections due to its ability to produce gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium, but it does not typically produce gas in wound infections. Choice C: Clostridium botulinum is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium, but it is associated with foodborne botulism rather than wound infections. Choice D: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium that causes tetanus, but it does not produce gas in wound infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sandfly. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by the bite of infected sandflies. These tiny insects are known vectors for Leishmania parasites. Sandflies are active during dusk and night, feeding on blood from mammals, including humans. Tick (B), mosquito (C), and tsetse fly (D) are not vectors for Leishmania parasites. Ticks transmit diseases like Lyme disease, mosquitoes transmit diseases like malaria, and tsetse flies transmit African trypanosomiasis. Therefore, the correct vector for cutaneous leishmaniasis is the sandfly due to its specific role in transmitting the Leishmania parasite.