What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters point to Staphylococcus or Micrococcus. 2. Catalase-positive eliminates Streptococcus. 3. Coagulase-positive distinguishes Staphylococcus aureus. 4. Thus, the causative agent is Staphylococcus aureus. Summary: - B: Streptococcus pyogenes is catalase-negative. - C: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative. - D: Micrococcus luteus is catalase-positive but coagulase-negative.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rabbit fever, or tularemia, is caused by Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is known to infect a wide range of animals, including rabbits. The other choices, Bartonella henselae (causes cat scratch fever), Spirillum minus (causes rat bite fever), and Yersinia pestis (causes plague) are not associated with rabbit fever. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific pathogen responsible for causing tularemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: after repeated exposure for days. Subacute toxic effects typically manifest after a period of time that is longer than immediate (A) or acute (B) effects but shorter than chronic effects (D). This duration of days aligns with the definition of subacute, which refers to effects that occur gradually over a relatively short time frame. It is important to differentiate between the timing of toxic effects to accurately assess the potential harm caused by a substance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the characteristic time frame associated with subacute toxic effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leptospirosis. Spiral-shaped bacteria with loose coils and pointed ends are characteristic of Leptospira interrogans, the causative agent of Leptospirosis. This bacterium is typically found in contaminated water or soil and can infect humans through contact with infected animals or water. Syphilis (Choice A) is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum, which has a more tightly coiled shape and does not typically appear loose or pointed. Relapsing fever (Choice C) is caused by Borrelia species, which are also spirochetes but do not have the loose coils and pointed ends described. Lyme disease (Choice D) is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which, like Relapsing fever, does not match the morphology described.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B virus. This is because Hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, not an RNA virus. The other choices, A (Hepatitis G virus), C (Hepatitis A virus), and D (Hepatitis E virus) are all RNA viruses. Hepatitis B virus is unique as it contains partially double-stranded DNA. DNA viruses replicate through a DNA intermediate, unlike RNA viruses which directly use RNA. Therefore, Hepatitis B virus stands out as the only DNA virus among the given options.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bordetella. The presence of mercury-drop like colonies on Bordet-Gengou agar indicates Bordetella pertussis. The small ovoid gram-negative bacilli sized 1-3 microns are characteristic of Bordetella species. Catarrhal symptoms are typical of pertussis caused by Bordetella pertussis. Summary of other choices: B: Corynebacteria do not typically exhibit mercury-drop like colonies or small ovoid shapes. C: Mycobacteria are acid-fast bacilli and do not grow on Bordet-Gengou agar. D: Meningococcus is a gram-negative diplococcus and does not match the description provided.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diarrhea. Brucellosis typically presents with symptoms such as arthralgia, headache, and undulating fever, but diarrhea is not a common symptom associated with the disease. Brucellosis is primarily characterized by systemic symptoms like fever, joint pain, and headache due to the bacterial infection. Diarrhea is more commonly seen in gastrointestinal infections rather than brucellosis. Therefore, the absence of diarrhea as a symptom in brucellosis helps in differentiating it from other diseases with similar clinical presentations.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of capsules supports the likelihood of S. pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae is Gram-negative and does not form diplococci. 5. Neisseria meningitidis typically causes meningitis, not pneumonia. 6. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive but does not typically present as diplococci in pneumonia cases.