What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?

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Microbiology Chapter 10 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

What preventive medications should be injected to a patient with open maxillofacial trauma provided that he has never got prophylactic vaccination before?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Antitetanus serum is crucial for patients with open maxillofacial trauma to prevent tetanus infection from contaminated wounds. Step 2: Antibiotics are needed to prevent infection in the wound. Step 3: Antitetanus serum provides immediate passive immunity while antibiotics help combat potential infections. Step 4: Antitetanus immunoglobulin is not mentioned in the question and is not typically used for prophylaxis. Step 5: Anticonvulsive drugs are not preventive medications for maxillofacial trauma. Step 6: Diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis vaccines are not specifically indicated for immediate prevention in this scenario.

Question 2 of 9

What drug should be administered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Doxycycline. It is a broad-spectrum antibiotic effective against a wide range of bacteria, including those causing infections like Lyme disease and pneumonia. Doxycycline is often the first-line treatment for these infections due to its efficacy and low risk of resistance. Chloramphenicol (B) has serious side effects and is reserved for specific cases. Penicillin (C) is not effective against all bacteria and may not cover the specific infection. Streptomycin (D) is mainly used for certain types of bacterial infections and is not the optimal choice for the conditions mentioned in the question.

Question 3 of 9

Method for rapid diagnosis of some viral infections is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because utilizing all three methods—immunofluorescence, viral neutralization reaction, and electron microscopy—provides a comprehensive and rapid diagnosis of various viral infections. Immunofluorescence detects viral antigens directly, viral neutralization reaction demonstrates the presence of specific antibodies, and electron microscopy visualizes viral particles. This combination ensures accurate and quick identification of different viruses. Choices A, B, and C alone may not cover all aspects of viral diagnosis, making them less effective compared to the comprehensive approach of using all three methods.

Question 4 of 9

The anticodons are located in

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: tRNA. Anticodons are sequences of nucleotides found on tRNA molecules that complement the codons on mRNA during translation. tRNA molecules carry specific amino acids to the ribosome based on the codon-anticodon pairing. Option B, rRNA, forms the structure of the ribosome and is not directly involved in anticodon recognition. Option C, mRNA, contains codons but not anticodons. Option D, ribosomes, are the site of protein synthesis but do not contain the anticodons themselves.

Question 5 of 9

Which bacteria produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Escherichia coli, Salmonella enterica, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa all produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock. Endotoxins are components of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria that can trigger a systemic inflammatory response, potentially leading to septic shock. E. coli and Salmonella are common causes of bacterial infections that can result in septic shock, while P. aeruginosa is known for causing infections in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, since all three bacteria produce endotoxins that can lead to septic shock, the correct answer is D.Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these bacteria individually produces endotoxins that can contribute to septic shock.

Question 6 of 9

A Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium was isolated from a wound infection. The bacteria were anaerobic and produced gas. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium is Gram-positive, spore-forming, anaerobic, and produces gas. Clostridium perfringens is commonly associated with wound infections due to its ability to produce gas gangrene. Choice B: Bacillus anthracis is also a Gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium, but it does not typically produce gas in wound infections. Choice C: Clostridium botulinum is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium, but it is associated with foodborne botulism rather than wound infections. Choice D: Clostridium tetani is a spore-forming, anaerobic bacterium that causes tetanus, but it does not produce gas in wound infections.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following hepatitis viruses is NOT a RNA virus?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis B virus. This is because Hepatitis B virus is a DNA virus, not an RNA virus. The other choices, A (Hepatitis G virus), C (Hepatitis A virus), and D (Hepatitis E virus) are all RNA viruses. Hepatitis B virus is unique as it contains partially double-stranded DNA. DNA viruses replicate through a DNA intermediate, unlike RNA viruses which directly use RNA. Therefore, Hepatitis B virus stands out as the only DNA virus among the given options.

Question 8 of 9

A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira interrogans. Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria. Leptospira is a spirochete bacterium that causes leptospirosis, which presents with jaundice, muscle aching, chill, and nosebleeds. Leptospira is commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated water or soil. B: Borrelia dutlonii causes Lyme disease, which is transmitted by ticks and does not typically present with jaundice or nosebleeds. C: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection that does not present with the symptoms described. D: Bartonella bacilloformis causes Carrion's disease, which presents with fever, anemia, and skin lesions but not jaundice or nosebleeds.

Question 9 of 9

What are the structural units of nucleic acids?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: nucleotides. Nucleotides are the structural units of nucleic acids, consisting of a nitrogenous base, a sugar molecule, and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous base can be adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, or uracil. Histones (B) are proteins that DNA wraps around in chromosomes, not structural units of nucleic acids. Nucleosides (A) are composed of a nitrogenous base and a sugar molecule but lack the phosphate group present in nucleotides. N-bases (D) is not a recognized term in biology and does not accurately describe the structural units of nucleic acids.

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