What part of the brain is responsible for regulating pituitary hormones and is known to regulate the body’s temperature?

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

What part of the brain is responsible for regulating pituitary hormones and is known to regulate the body’s temperature?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypothalamus. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating pituitary hormones through the release of various hormones that control the pituitary gland. It also plays a crucial role in regulating the body's temperature through thermoregulation. The thalamus (A) is involved in relaying sensory information, the cerebellum (B) is primarily responsible for motor coordination, and the limbic system (C) is associated with emotions and memory. Therefore, the hypothalamus is the only choice that directly relates to regulating pituitary hormones and body temperature.

Question 2 of 5

A patient with severe liver disease is receiving the angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, captopril (Capoten). The nurse is aware that the advantage of this drug for this patient is which characteristic?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Captopril is not a prodrug and does not need to be metabolized by the liver before becoming active. Rationale: 1. In severe liver disease, the liver's ability to metabolize drugs can be compromised. 2. Captopril is not a prodrug, meaning it does not require liver metabolism to become active. 3. This characteristic of captopril is advantageous in liver disease as it avoids potential issues related to impaired liver metabolism. Summary: A: Captopril can cause first-dose hypotensive effects, so it is not the advantage for a patient with severe liver disease. B: Captopril can affect electrolyte levels, so it is not the advantage for a patient with severe liver disease. C: Captopril being a prodrug and requiring liver metabolism would be a disadvantage for a patient with severe liver disease.

Question 3 of 5

When administering heparin subcutaneously, the nurse will follow which procedure?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because when administering heparin subcutaneously, using a - to -inch 25- to 28-gauge needle is appropriate to ensure proper delivery into the subcutaneous tissue. This needle size is suitable for subcutaneous injections and helps prevent complications such as leakage or irritation. As for the other choices: A: Aspirating the syringe before injecting the medication is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as it is commonly done for intramuscular injections to ensure proper needle placement. B: Massaging the site after injection is not recommended as it can cause bruising or discomfort. C: Applying heat to the injection site is not a standard procedure for subcutaneous injections and may not provide any benefit in this context.

Question 4 of 5

When evaluating a patient’s use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse notes that the patient is unable to coordinate the activation of the inhaler with her breathing. What intervention is most appropriate at this time?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obtain an order for a spacer device. This intervention is most appropriate as a spacer device can help improve the delivery of medication from the MDI, even if the patient is unable to coordinate inhalation with activation. The spacer device acts as an intermediary between the inhaler and the patient, allowing the medication to be inhaled more effectively. This ensures that the patient receives the full dose of the medication. Incorrect answers: A: Notifying the doctor that the patient is unable to use the MDI does not directly address the issue of coordination and does not provide a solution. B: Obtaining an order for a peak flow meter is not the most appropriate intervention in this scenario, as it does not address the patient's inability to coordinate the use of the MDI. D: Asking the prescriber if the medication can be given orally is not necessary if the patient can still benefit from using the MDI with the help of a spacer device.

Question 5 of 5

Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Microsomal oxidation is primarily mediated by cytochrome P450 enzymes located in the endoplasmic reticulum of hepatocytes. Lipid-soluble drugs can easily penetrate cell membranes to reach the microsomes where cytochrome P450 enzymes are located, making microsomal oxidation most prominent for lipid-soluble drugs. Water-soluble drugs have limited access to microsomes, reducing the likelihood of undergoing significant microsomal oxidation. Low molecular weight drugs are generally more likely to be lipid-soluble and undergo microsomal oxidation, while high molecular weight drugs may be too large to efficiently access microsomes for this metabolic pathway. Therefore, the correct choice is A: Lipid soluble.

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