ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What nursing interventions are important for a client in Buck's traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Nutrition is important for overall health and healing in a client in Buck's traction. Step 2: Elimination is necessary to prevent complications such as constipation. Step 3: Comfort measures help alleviate pain and promote well-being. Step 4: Safety measures ensure the client's well-being during traction. Step 5: ROM exercises are not recommended to prevent displacement of traction. Transportation and isotonic exercises are not directly related to Buck's traction care.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 3 of 9
While taking a detailed history, what should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Functional status. Including functional status in the history is essential as it provides information about the client's ability to perform activities of daily living. This information is crucial for assessing the client's overall health and well-being. Functional status helps the nurse understand the impact of health issues on the client's daily life and helps in planning appropriate care interventions. B: Data focusing on the client complaint is too narrow and may not provide a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status. C: A focused assessment of the client complaint may overlook other important aspects of the client's health that could impact their overall well-being. D: Family history for the past three generations is not typically included in a detailed history-taking process and may not be directly relevant to the client's current health status.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of smoking. The patient reports a persistent cough that has worsened over the past few months. The nurse would be most concerned about the possibility of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient's history of smoking, persistent cough, and worsening symptoms over months are indicative of COPD, a progressive lung disease commonly caused by smoking. Asthma (A) typically presents with intermittent symptoms, bronchitis (C) may cause cough but not necessarily worsening over time, and pulmonary embolism (D) is characterized by sudden onset symptoms and is less likely in this case. COPD is the most concerning due to the patient's smoking history and progressive symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an eye examination. The nurse suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. Ptosis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: drooping of the upper eyelid. Ptosis refers to the drooping of the upper eyelid, which may occur due to weakened eyelid muscles or nerve damage. In this case, the nurse suspects ptosis in the 60-year-old man, which is likely due to age-related muscle weakness. Choice A, a cloudy cornea, is incorrect as it refers to a different eye condition. Choice B, an unequal red reflex, is incorrect as it is related to abnormalities in the retina. Choice D, protruding and bulging eyes, is incorrect as it indicates exophthalmos, a condition typically seen in thyroid eye disease.
Question 6 of 9
A woman has come to the clinic to seek help for a substance use problem. She admits to using cocaine just before coming to the clinic. Which of the following describes what the nurse may find when examining this woman?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that typically leads to symptoms such as dilated pupils, pacing, and psychomotor agitation. Dilated pupils occur due to increased catecholamines. Pacing and psychomotor agitation are common behaviors associated with cocaine use. Unsteady gait and aggressiveness (Option B) are more characteristic of alcohol intoxication. Pupil constriction, lethargy, apathy, and dysphoria (Option C) are typical symptoms of opioid use. Constricted pupils, euphoria, and decreased temperature (Option D) are more indicative of opioid use as well.
Question 7 of 9
What is the priority nursing action for a client who is experiencing severe chest pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. The priority nursing action for a client experiencing severe chest pain is to administer nitroglycerin to help dilate the blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, reducing chest pain. This action helps to address the immediate issue of chest pain and potential heart damage. Administering morphine (B) may be considered if chest pain persists despite nitroglycerin. Administering oxygen (C) can also be helpful but is not the initial priority. Monitoring blood pressure (D) is important but not the most urgent action in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
A 28-year-old Aboriginal woman attending a prenatal visit describes her nutritional intake over the past 24 hours to the nurse. It includes two slices of pizza, two cans of soda, and three cookies. The nurse must:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: discuss how the patient's food choices may affect her health and that of her baby. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the potential impact of the patient's current diet on her health and the health of her baby during pregnancy. By discussing the implications of her food choices, the nurse can educate the patient on the importance of a balanced and nutritious diet for a healthy pregnancy. This approach promotes awareness and empowers the patient to make informed decisions for her and her baby's well-being. Incorrect choices: A: This option does not provide guidance or education on improving the patient's diet, which is crucial for a healthy pregnancy. B: Focusing on weight gain rather than nutritional content may not address the underlying issue of poor dietary choices. C: Assuming the patient's ability to cook or go grocery shopping may not address the immediate need for dietary education and guidance.
Question 9 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.