What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?

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Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary nursing. Primary nursing is a care delivery model where one nurse is responsible for the total care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period. This promotes continuity of care, individualized attention, and better nurse-client relationships. In primary nursing, the nurse plans and directs care, coordinates with other healthcare team members, and serves as the main point of contact for the clients. A: Case management involves coordinating care across different healthcare providers and services, not necessarily focusing on a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period. B: Team nursing involves a team of healthcare providers working together to deliver care, rather than one nurse being responsible for a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period. D: Functional nursing divides tasks among different healthcare team members based on their specific skills, which may not provide the same level of continuity and individualized care as primary nursing.

Question 2 of 9

Nociceptors differ from other nerve receptors in the body in what way?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because nociceptors are specialized nerve receptors that do not adapt much to continual pain response. This lack of adaptation allows nociceptors to continuously signal the presence of tissue-damaging stimuli, which is crucial for the perception of pain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nociceptors do not inhibit the infiltration of neutrophils and eosinophils (B), they do play a role in the inflammatory response (C), and they transmit various types of stimuli including thermal, mechanical, and chemical, not just thermal stimuli (D).

Question 3 of 9

Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is used to

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) primarily removes fluids and solutes through the process of convection. In CVVH, blood flows through a filter where hydrostatic pressure drives plasma water and solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This process mimics the natural filtration that occurs in the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect because CVVH does not specifically target plasma water only but also removes solutes. Choice C is incorrect because CVVH does not involve adding dialysate to remove plasma water and solutes. Choice D is incorrect because while CVVH may involve ultrafiltration and convection, it does not typically include dialysis as a primary mechanism for solute removal.

Question 4 of 9

An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention, especially in the elderly. Morphine sulfate can also contribute to urinary retention. Antacids (A) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (C) are not known to cause urinary retention. Insulin (D) does not pose a risk for urinary retention in this scenario.

Question 5 of 9

The charge nurse is supervising the care of four critical ca re patients being monitored using invasive hemodynamic modalities. Which patient should t he charge nurse evaluate first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the patient in cardiogenic shock with a cardiac output of 2.0 L/min is experiencing a life-threatening condition that requires immediate evaluation. Cardiogenic shock indicates poor cardiac function, which can lead to multi-organ failure. Monitoring cardiac output is crucial in managing these patients. Choice B is incorrect because a pulmonary artery systolic pressure of 20 mm Hg is within normal range and does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. Choice C is incorrect because a CVP of 6 mm Hg in a hypovolemic patient may indicate volume depletion, but it is not as urgent as the patient in cardiogenic shock. Choice D is incorrect because a PAOP of 10 mm Hg is within normal range and does not suggest an immediate critical condition.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse responds to a ventilator alarm and finds the patient lying in bed holding the endotracheal tube (ET). Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action is D: Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen. This is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent hypoxia. Holding the ET tube can lead to extubation and airway compromise. Activating the rapid response team (A) may delay immediate intervention. Providing reassurance (B) is important but not the priority in this situation. Calling the health care provider (C) to reinsert the tube would also lead to a delay in providing essential respiratory support.

Question 7 of 9

Which interventions can the nurse use to facilitate communication with patients and families who are in the process of making decisions regarding end- of-life care options? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Communication of uniform messages from all healthcare team members. This intervention is crucial to ensure consistency in information provided to patients and families, reducing confusion and enhancing trust. When all team members convey the same messages, it helps in clarifying options and facilitating decision-making. Choices B and C are incorrect as they focus on care planning and continuity, which are important but not specifically related to facilitating communication in end-of-life care decisions. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests limiting time for families to express feelings, which can hinder effective communication and support during such a sensitive time.

Question 8 of 9

Intrapulmonary shunting refers to what outcome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Intrapulmonary shunting refers to blood bypassing the normal oxygenation process in the lungs. 2. Choice C describes blood being shunted from the right side of the heart (deoxygenated blood) to the left side without oxygenation, leading to systemic circulation without oxygenation. 3. Choices A, B, and D do not accurately describe intrapulmonary shunting as they focus on other concepts like alveolar perfusion, heart failure, and unilateral lung blood supply, respectively.

Question 9 of 9

Anxiety differs from pain in that way? (Select all that app ly.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because anxiety is indeed linked to reward and punishment centers in the limbic system, specifically involving the amygdala and prefrontal cortex. This connection influences emotional responses and behaviors related to anxiety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anxiety involves both neurological and psychological processes beyond the brain, is highly subjective like pain, and can lead to physical symptoms without actual tissue injury.

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