ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Exam Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Primary nursing. Primary nursing is a care delivery model where one nurse is responsible for the total care of a group of clients over a 24-hour period. This promotes continuity of care, individualized attention, and better nurse-client relationships. In primary nursing, the nurse plans and directs care, coordinates with other healthcare team members, and serves as the main point of contact for the clients. A: Case management involves coordinating care across different healthcare providers and services, not necessarily focusing on a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period. B: Team nursing involves a team of healthcare providers working together to deliver care, rather than one nurse being responsible for a specific group of clients over a 24-hour period. D: Functional nursing divides tasks among different healthcare team members based on their specific skills, which may not provide the same level of continuity and individualized care as primary nursing.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assisting with endotracheal intubation and un derstands correct placement of the endotracheal tube in the trachea would be identified by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Equal bilateral breath sounds upon auscultation. This indicates proper placement of the endotracheal tube in the trachea, ensuring both lungs are being ventilated equally. Rationale: 1. Auscultation of air over the epigastrium (Choice A) is incorrect as it indicates esophageal intubation, not tracheal intubation. 2. Position above the carina verified by chest x-ray (Choice C) is incorrect as it does not confirm proper placement at the trachea. 3. Positive detection of carbon dioxide (CO2) (Choice D) is incorrect as it indicates the presence of exhaled CO2, but not necessarily proper placement in the trachea.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most important outcome of effective communi cation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because reducing patient errors is the most important outcome of effective communication in healthcare. Clear and accurate communication among healthcare providers and patients can prevent misunderstandings, leading to fewer errors in diagnosis, treatment, and medication administration. This ultimately improves patient safety and outcomes. A: Demonstrating caring practices to family members is important but not the most crucial outcome of effective communication in healthcare. B: Ensuring that patient teaching is provided is essential, but patient safety through error reduction takes precedence. C: Meeting the diversity needs of patients is crucial for patient-centered care, but error reduction directly impacts patient safety, making it more critical.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse caring for a patient with an endotracheal tube un derstands that endotracheal suctioning is needed to facilitate removal of secretions. What additional information is the nurse aware of concerning this intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: Endotracheal suctioning should be done as indicated by patient assessment because not all patients require routine suctioning. Performing unnecessary suctioning can lead to potential complications such as mucosal damage and increased risk of infection. Therefore, the nurse must assess the patient's respiratory status, auscultate lung sounds, monitor oxygen saturation levels, and observe for signs of increased secretions before deciding to perform suctioning. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Endotracheal suctioning does not directly impact intracranial pressure. It is primarily focused on maintaining airway patency and removing respiratory secretions. B: While endotracheal suctioning may temporarily suppress the cough reflex during the procedure, its primary purpose is to clear airway secretions to prevent complications such as atelectasis and respiratory distress. D: Saline instillation before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to negative outcomes such as dehydration, mucosal damage, and increased risk of infection
Question 5 of 9
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tricyclic antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention, especially in the elderly. Morphine sulfate can also contribute to urinary retention. Antacids (A) and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (C) are not known to cause urinary retention. Insulin (D) does not pose a risk for urinary retention in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
The transplant clinic coordinator is evaluating relatives of a patient with end-stage renal disease, whose blood type is A positive, for suitability as aa bliirvb.icnogm /dteostn or for kidney transplantation. Which family member best qualifies for evaluation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the 70-year-old mother with blood type A positive. This choice is the best candidate for evaluation due to her blood type matching the patient's (A positive) for kidney transplantation. Age and medical history are also crucial factors in determining suitability. The 65-year-old brother (choice A) has hypertension, a significant risk factor. The 35-year-old female (choice B) with food allergies may have potential complications. The 14-year-old son (choice C) is underage and might not be a suitable donor due to age and the potential impact on his growth and development. In summary, choice D aligns with the matching blood type and age, making the mother the most suitable candidate for evaluation.
Question 7 of 9
Which nursing actions for the care of a dying patient can the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) (select all that apply)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing postmortem care to a dying patient is a task that can be safely delegated to an LPN/LVN. This includes tasks such as preparing the body, cleaning, and positioning after death. LPNs/LVNs are trained and competent in performing these duties under the supervision of a registered nurse or physician. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they involve critical thinking, assessment, and teaching skills that are typically within the scope of practice of a registered nurse. Encouraging family members to talk with the patient, determining assessment frequency, and educating about signs of approaching death require a higher level of nursing judgment and expertise, which is beyond the scope of an LPN/LVN's role.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient in the critica l care unit. The physician has ordered patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) for the patient. The nurse understands what facts about the PCA? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why Answer A is correct: 1. Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) allows patients to self-administer pain medication within preset limits, promoting pain management. 2. PCA is considered safe and effective as it provides better pain control, reduces the risk of overdose, and allows for individualized dosing. 3. Healthcare providers can monitor and adjust the PCA settings as needed to ensure optimal pain relief. 4. Studies have shown that PCA is a preferred method for postoperative pain management due to its efficacy and safety profile. 5. Overall, PCA is a reliable and beneficial approach to analgesia administration in postoperative patients. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: While PCA may have fewer side effects compared to some routes, this is not a defining characteristic of PCA. C: While patients do have some control over their treatment with PCA, the primary focus is on pain management rather than giving control to critically ill patients. D: PCA can be used effectively without family
Question 9 of 9
The nurse manager recognizes which action as an effectiveab sirtbr.acotmeg/teys tf or promoting changes in practice?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it involves a structured approach to promoting changes in practice. By asking the clinical nurse specialist to lead a journal club on open visitation after each nurse reads a research article, it ensures that all nurses are informed and engaged in the topic. This approach promotes evidence-based practice and encourages active participation. Option B is less effective as discussing pros and cons at a staff meeting may not ensure that all nurses have the necessary knowledge to make informed decisions. Option C may not consider diverse perspectives and may not involve all staff members equally. Option D involves a select group of volunteers and may not reflect the views of the entire team. Overall, option A is the most inclusive and educational approach to promoting changes in practice.