Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Adult Health Med Surg Nursing Test Banks Questions

Question 1 of 5

what must the Emergency Room Nurse do FIRST?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a patient arrives in the emergency room, the nurse's first priority is to assess the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation, following the ABCs of emergency care. In this scenario, positioning the patient with the head lower than the extremities ensures proper blood flow to vital organs, especially the brain. This position helps to maintain perfusion to the brain and prevent complications such as hypotension and shock. Once the patient's position is optimized, the nurse can proceed with further interventions such as starting an intravenous line, stopping bleeding, and requesting laboratory examinations as needed.

Question 2 of 5

A patient receiving palliative care for end-stage pancreatic cancer experiences severe abdominal pain. What intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to manage the patient's symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with severe abdominal pain due to end-stage pancreatic cancer, the priority intervention to manage their symptoms would be to provide adequate pain relief. Opioid analgesics are the cornerstone of pain management for cancer patients experiencing severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the central nervous system, thereby reducing the perception of pain. Opioids are highly effective in managing cancer pain, including abdominal pain, and can significantly improve the patient's quality of life by providing relief from distressing symptoms. Therefore, administering opioid analgesics should be the nurse's primary intervention in this case to address the patient's severe abdominal pain. Initiating enteral nutrition, recommending hot compresses, or referring to a gastroenterologist may be relevant interventions depending on the patient's overall care plan but addressing the pain should be the immediate priority in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following terms refers to the process by which antibodies coat the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement proteins?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Opsonization refers to the process by which antibodies bind to the surface of pathogens, marking them for destruction by phagocytes or complement proteins. This coating of antibodies enhances the ability of the immune system to recognize and eliminate the pathogens effectively. Phagocytes (such as macrophages and neutrophils) are better able to engulf and digest pathogens that have been opsonized, as the antibodies attached to the pathogen surface signal to the phagocytes that they are foreign invaders. This process is crucial in the body's immune response to infections and helps in clearing pathogens from the system.

Question 4 of 5

During a support group meeting, Nurse Donato, in a teasing manner, has made several provocative remarks about your appearance and behavior as a group leader. Select your MOST appropriate response.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Choosing option D, "Donato, what you are saying is inappropriate," is the most appropriate response in this situation. It directly addresses Nurse Donato's behavior without escalating the situation or being overly confrontational. By calmly pointing out that the remarks are inappropriate, you are setting a boundary and letting Nurse Donato know that such behavior is not acceptable in a professional setting. This response also signals to the rest of the group that you are aware of the inappropriate comments and are taking action to address them. It is important to address such behavior professionally and assertively to maintain a respectful and supportive environment during the support group meeting.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. Symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago but have partially resolved since then. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of sudden-onset unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech that partially resolved within 30 minutes is more consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) rather than an ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary decreases in blood flow to a specific area of the brain, leading to transient neurological deficits that typically last for less than 24 hours. In this case, the symptoms partially resolving suggest a temporary and reversible ischemic event, characteristic of a TIA. Ischemic strokes involve more prolonged or permanent impairment due to blockage of a blood vessel supplying the brain, while hemorrhagic strokes involve bleeding within the brain tissue or the surrounding membranes.

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