ATI RN
Comfort Measures During Labor and Delivery Questions
Question 1 of 5
What medication treats uterine atony?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Methylergonovine is the correct answer for treating uterine atony. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract after childbirth, leading to postpartum hemorrhage. Methylergonovine is a medication that works by causing the uterine muscles to contract, helping to control bleeding and prevent further complications. This drug is specifically used to treat postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not uterine atony. Nitroglycerine (Choice B) is a vasodilator used to treat conditions like angina and heart failure, not uterine atony. Magnesium sulfate (Choice C) is a medication used to prevent seizures in conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia during pregnancy, not specifically for treating uterine atony. In conclusion, methylergonovine is the correct choice for treating uterine atony because it helps stimulate uterine contractions and control postpartum bleeding. The other options are not appropriate for this condition and do not address the underlying issue of uterine atony.
Question 2 of 5
What assessment provides the most valuable information regarding the client's labor status?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vaginal examination provides the most valuable information regarding the client's labor status because it allows healthcare providers to assess cervical dilation, effacement, and station of the fetus in the birth canal. These factors are crucial in determining the progress of labor and whether the client is in active labor or not. Leopold's maneuvers (Choice A) are a series of four movements used to assess the position of the fetus in the uterus. While this assessment can provide valuable information about fetal position, it does not provide direct information about the client's labor status. Fundal contractility (Choice B) refers to the strength and frequency of contractions of the uterus. While monitoring fundal contractility is important during labor, it does not provide information about cervical dilation or the position of the fetus, which are key indicators of labor progress. Fetal heart assessment (Choice C) is important for monitoring the well-being of the fetus during labor. However, it does not provide direct information about the client's labor status in terms of cervical dilation and fetal position. It is more focused on the fetal response to labor rather than the progress of labor itself. In conclusion, vaginal examination is the most valuable assessment for determining the client's labor status as it provides direct information about cervical dilation, effacement, and fetal station, which are critical indicators of labor progress.
Question 3 of 5
When should the nurse assess the fetal heart pattern during the latent phase? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the latent phase of labor, it is crucial for the nurse to monitor the fetal heart pattern regularly to ensure the well-being of the baby. Option A, assessing the fetal heart pattern after vaginal exams, is incorrect because these exams can temporarily affect the fetal heart rate due to stimulation of the cervix or manipulation of the uterus. This can lead to inaccurate results and unnecessary concern. Option B, assessing the fetal heart pattern before administration of analgesics, is also incorrect because analgesics can cross the placenta and potentially affect the baby's heart rate. Therefore, it is important to establish a baseline fetal heart rate before administering any medications to accurately monitor changes. Option C, assessing the fetal heart pattern periodically at the end of a contraction, is incorrect because it is essential to monitor the fetal heart rate continuously throughout the contraction to identify any signs of distress or changes in the pattern that may indicate fetal compromise. Waiting until the end of a contraction may delay intervention and compromise the baby's well-being. Option D, assessing the fetal heart pattern every ten minutes, is the correct answer because it allows for frequent and consistent monitoring of the baby's heart rate to detect any changes or abnormalities promptly. This interval is recommended during the latent phase of labor when the baby is more susceptible to stress due to the length of labor and potential complications. Regular monitoring ensures timely intervention if needed, promoting the best possible outcome for both the mother and the baby.
Question 4 of 5
What is consistent with the assessment of fetal buttocks at 1 cm above the ischial spines?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When assessing the fetal position, it is crucial to understand the station, which refers to the level of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines. In this scenario, the fetal buttocks are at 1 cm above the ischial spines. Choice A: LOA -1 station LOA stands for Left Occiput Anterior, which is a different fetal position than the buttocks presenting. Additionally, -1 station indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines, not consistent with the given scenario. Choice C: LMP -1 station LMP stands for Last Menstrual Period, which is not relevant to the assessment of fetal position. Furthermore, -1 station is incorrect as it does not match the location of the fetal buttocks described in the question. Choice D: LSA -1 station LSA is not a recognized fetal position abbreviation. Additionally, -1 station does not align with the fetal buttocks being at 1 cm above the ischial spines. Therefore, choice B: LSP -1 station is the correct answer. LSP refers to Left Sacrum Posterior, which indicates that the fetus is in the breech position with the sacrum presenting. -1 station matches the description of the fetal buttocks being 1 cm above the ischial spines, making this choice consistent with the assessment.
Question 5 of 5
What is the likely status of a multipara who was 8 cm dilated and is now pushing with the fetal head visible?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When a multipara is 8 cm dilated and actively pushing with the fetal head visible, it indicates that she is in the second stage of labor. At this point, the cervix should be fully dilated at 10 cm to allow for the passage of the baby. Choice A is incorrect because if the multipara is already pushing with the fetal head visible, it is unlikely that she would regress to 9 cm dilated. Additionally, the effacement and station values are not consistent with the progress of labor at this point. Choice B is also incorrect because the same reasoning applies. The multipara is already pushing with the fetal head visible, so it is unlikely that she would be at 9 cm dilated. The effacement and station values do not align with the progress of labor. Choice C is incorrect because if the multipara is actively pushing with the fetal head visible, she should be fully dilated at 10 cm. The effacement and station values are not consistent with the stage of labor described. Choice D is the correct answer because if the multipara is actively pushing with the fetal head visible, she would likely be fully dilated at 10 cm. The effacement should be 100% to allow for the passage of the baby, and the station of +5 indicates that the baby is descending through the birth canal. This choice aligns with the progress of labor described in the scenario.