ATI RN
Antenatal care for complicated pregnancies Questions
Question 1 of 5
What medication is not recommended for hypertension during pregnancy due to teratogenic effects?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lisinopril. Lisinopril is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects, particularly in the first trimester. It can cause fetal harm, including renal dysfunction and skull hypoplasia. Nifedipine, labetalol, and hydralazine are considered safe options for hypertension during pregnancy with no known teratogenic effects.
Question 2 of 5
A patient at 10 weeks' gestation informs the nurse they are having vaginal bleeding and cramping. After completing a speculum examination, the health-care provider (HCP) informs the patient their cervix is open. What does the nurse anticipate the HCP will inform the patient they are experiencing?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: inevitable abortion. At 10 weeks' gestation, an open cervix with vaginal bleeding and cramping indicates an inevitable abortion, where the miscarriage is unavoidable and the process is ongoing. The open cervix suggests that the pregnancy is not viable and will not continue. The other options are incorrect because: A. Complete abortion refers to the expulsion of all products of conception, B. Incomplete abortion involves partial expulsion of products of conception, and D. Spontaneous abortion is a general term for any non-induced abortion.
Question 3 of 5
What is the difference between a complete abortion and an incomplete abortion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in a complete abortion, the uterus is empty, indicating that all products of conception have been expelled. In contrast, in an incomplete abortion, some products of conception remain in the uterus, leading to ongoing bleeding and cramping. Choice B is incorrect because cervical dilation is not the defining factor between complete and incomplete abortions. Choice C is incorrect as both complete and incomplete abortions can present with symptoms of miscarriage. Choice D is incorrect because the method of fetal removal does not differentiate between complete and incomplete abortions.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used in preeclampsia to prevent seizures/eclampsia. It works by reducing neuromuscular transmission and excitability, making it an effective anticonvulsant. Diuretics (A) help remove excess fluid, tocolytics (B) inhibit uterine contractions, and antihypertensives (D) lower blood pressure, but they do not address the primary purpose of using magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia, which is to prevent seizures.
Question 5 of 5
Which edema assessment score indicates edema of the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3. A score of 3 in edema assessment indicates significant edema in the lower extremities, face, hands, and sacral area. This score reflects a higher level of pitting edema, which is commonly observed in these areas in cases of fluid retention. Scores 1 and 2 are typically used to indicate mild to moderate edema in specific areas or generalized mild edema, not as extensive as described in the question. Score 4 would typically indicate severe edema involving not only the mentioned areas but also potentially other body parts. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate answer based on the extent and distribution of edema described in the question.