What mechanism of action or pharmacological action is best associated with pramlintide (Symlin)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Synthetic amylin analog. Pramlintide is a synthetic analog of amylin, a hormone co-secreted with insulin. It works by mimicking the action of natural amylin to regulate glucose levels, slow gastric emptying, and suppress postprandial glucagon secretion. This helps to reduce postprandial blood sugar spikes in patients with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because pramlintide does not have any impact on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Choice B is incorrect as pramlintide does not block glycine and GABA release. Choice C is incorrect as pramlintide is not an NMDA receptor antagonist. Overall, the correct answer is D because pramlintide's mechanism of action closely resembles that of natural amylin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Stopping the medication is crucial to prevent further allergic reactions. 2. Encouraging the patient to wear a medical alert bracelet will help healthcare providers quickly identify the allergy. 3. This action promotes patient safety and prevents future adverse reactions. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Anaphylactic reactions are severe and life-threatening, and hives and itching do not necessarily indicate an anaphylactic reaction. C: Lowering the dosage is not the appropriate response to an allergic reaction; stopping the medication is necessary. D: It is not safe to assume that the reaction was mild, as allergic reactions can escalate upon subsequent exposures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: After 24 hours, two half-lives of the medication have passed. Initially, 200 mg is halved to 100 mg after 12 hours (1st half-life), then halved again to 50 mg after another 12 hours (2nd half-life). Therefore, only 50 mg of the drug would remain after 24 hours. Summary of other choices: - B: 100 mg - Incorrect, this is the amount remaining after the first half-life, not after 24 hours. - C: 150 mg - Incorrect, this is not the correct calculation based on the drug's half-life. - D: 200 mg - Incorrect, the drug undergoes degradation over time due to its half-life, so the amount remaining after 24 hours is less than the initial dose of 200 mg.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pore formation in fungal cell membrane. Amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal medication that works by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to the formation of pores. This disrupts membrane integrity, causing leakage of intracellular components and ultimately cell death. This mechanism of action is specific to fungal cells, as mammalian cells contain cholesterol instead of ergosterol. Choice A is incorrect because amphotericin B does not activate fungal cytochrome P-450 enzymes; instead, it disrupts the fungal cell membrane. Choice C is incorrect because amphotericin B does not inhibit fungal cytochrome P-450 enzymes. Choice D is incorrect because amphotericin B does not inhibit fungal mitosis; its primary mechanism of action is through membrane disruption.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stratum corneum. The drug most likely acted on the outermost layer of the skin, the stratum corneum, as it is responsible for drug absorption and penetration. The other layers (A, B, D) are deeper layers of the skin and are not primarily involved in drug action. The stratum basale (A) is the innermost layer responsible for cell division, the stratum spinosum (B) provides strength and flexibility, and the pigment layer (D) contains melanocytes responsible for skin color. Therefore, the stratum corneum is the most likely site for drug action due to its role in drug absorption and penetration.