What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness are classic signs of compartment syndrome. In this condition, increased pressure within a muscle compartment impairs blood flow, leading to severe pain that is not relieved by usual measures, pallor from decreased blood flow, and pulselessness due to compromised circulation. These signs indicate a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Localized redness and swelling (Choice B) are more characteristic of inflammation or infection rather than compartment syndrome. Fever and signs of infection (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of compartment syndrome. Loss of deep tendon reflexes (Choice D) is associated with conditions affecting the nervous system, not compartment syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid mint and spicy foods for a patient with GERD. These foods can increase gastric acid secretion and worsen symptoms of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because eating large meals before bedtime can exacerbate GERD symptoms due to increased gastric pressure when lying down. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can lead to increased gastric distention, potentially triggering GERD symptoms. Choice D, avoiding NSAIDs, though important for some patients with GERD due to their potential to irritate the stomach lining, is not a general dietary recommendation for all GERD patients.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke due to brain bleeding. This headache is often described as the worst headache of one's life. Gradual onset of numbness (choice B) is more characteristic of an ischemic stroke, where a blood clot blocks an artery in the brain. Loss of consciousness (choice C) can occur in severe cases of stroke but is not specific to hemorrhagic strokes. Loss of speech ability (choice D) is more associated with ischemic strokes affecting language centers of the brain.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing and coughing by opening up the airways, making it the first-line treatment for allergic reactions presenting with these symptoms. Cromolyn and aminophylline are not typically used as first-line treatments for acute allergic reactions with wheezing and coughing. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, may be beneficial for inflammation in the setting of an allergic reaction but is not the initial medication of choice to address wheezing and coughing.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for continuous bubbling in the chest tube water seal chamber is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak in the system, and tightening the connections can help resolve this issue. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) is not appropriate and can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Similarly, replacing the entire chest tube system (Choice C) may not be necessary if the issue can be resolved by tightening the connections. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action to address the continuous bubbling may delay necessary interventions to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In hypokalemia, flattened T waves are a common ECG finding due to the decreased extracellular potassium affecting repolarization. Prominent U waves are typically seen in hypokalemia as well, but flattened T waves are the more specific and early ECG change. Widened QRS complexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. ST elevation is often seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, pericarditis, or early repolarization syndrome, not specifically in hypokalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate action is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This may resolve an air leak that is causing the continuous bubbling. Option B, replacing the chest tube system, is not the initial step to take and is considered more invasive. Clamping the chest tube (option C) can lead to complications and should not be done unless instructed by a healthcare provider. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (option D) without taking any corrective action may delay necessary interventions.