What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching to provide to a patient following surgical removal of a cataract is to avoid NSAIDs. NSAIDs can increase the risk of bleeding at the surgical site, so it is important to steer clear of them. Choice B, wearing dark glasses while outdoors, may be recommended post-surgery to protect the eyes from bright light, but it is not the priority teaching in this case. Choice C, stating that creamy white drainage is normal, is not accurate as drainage from the eye should be monitored and reported. Choice D, reducing phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day, is unrelated to post-cataract surgery care and is not a necessary teaching point.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. Mint and spicy foods can aggravate GERD symptoms by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and increasing stomach acid production, leading to acid reflux. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating large meals before bedtime can worsen GERD symptoms as lying down can promote acid reflux. Consuming liquids with meals can also exacerbate GERD by increasing stomach distension and pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Eating three large meals per day can overload the stomach and trigger acid reflux episodes in patients with GERD.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Albuterol 3 ml via nebulizer. Albuterol is a bronchodilator that helps relieve wheezing and coughing by opening up the airways, making it the first-line treatment for allergic reactions presenting with these symptoms. Cromolyn and aminophylline are not typically used as first-line treatments for acute allergic reactions with wheezing and coughing. Methylprednisolone, a corticosteroid, may be beneficial for inflammation in the setting of an allergic reaction but is not the initial medication of choice to address wheezing and coughing.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemorrhagic stroke often presents with a sudden severe headache, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures due to bleeding in the brain. Choice B, loss of consciousness and weakness, is more indicative of an ischemic stroke where a clot blocks blood flow to the brain. Choice C, temporary vision loss, is more commonly seen in conditions like transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or retinal migraines. Choice D, severe chest pain and shortness of breath, are symptoms more associated with cardiac issues like a heart attack.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the classic signs include unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These signs indicate compromised circulation and neurovascular function in the affected compartment. Fever and infection (Choice B) are not typical signs of compartment syndrome. Localized redness and swelling (Choice C) can be seen in other conditions like cellulitis but are not specific to compartment syndrome. Loss of sensation in the affected area (Choice D) may occur in some cases but is not as specific or consistent as unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness in diagnosing compartment syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient experiences abdominal cramping during enema administration, the nurse should lower the height of the solution container. This adjustment can help alleviate the cramping by reducing the speed and pressure of the solution entering the colon. Increasing the flow of the enema solution (Choice B) can exacerbate the cramping. Stopping the procedure and removing the tubing (Choice C) may be necessary in extreme cases but is not the initial step. Continuing the enema at a slower rate (Choice D) may not effectively address the cramping, making it less optimal than lowering the height of the solution container.