ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the treatment for an acute exacerbation of asthma?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inhaled bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids. Bronchodilators help to quickly open up the airways during an asthma exacerbation, providing immediate relief. Intravenous corticosteroids help reduce airway inflammation and prevent further worsening of symptoms. Corticosteroids by mouth (Choice A) are not as effective as intravenous administration during an acute exacerbation. Prone positioning or continuous lateral rotation (Choice C) is not a recommended treatment for asthma exacerbation. Sedation and inhaled bronchodilators (Choice D) are not appropriate as sedation can depress respiratory function and worsen the condition.
Question 2 of 9
A 45-year-old postsurgical patient is on a ventilator in the critical care unit has been tolerating the ventilator well and has not required any sedation. The apbairtbi.ecnomt /bteesct omes tachycardic and hypertensive with a respiratory rate that has increased to 28 breaths/min. The ventilator is set on synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV ) at a rate of 10 breaths/min. The patient has been suctioned recently via existing endotracheal tube until airway is clear. When the patient responds appropriately to the nurse’s command s, what should be the nurse’s priority intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing the patient's level of pain. In this situation, the patient's tachycardia, hypertension, and increased respiratory rate could be indicative of pain. By assessing the patient's pain level, the nurse can address any discomfort the patient may be experiencing, which could be contributing to these physiological responses. Summary of other choices: B: Decreasing the SIMV rate on the ventilator - This is not the priority intervention as the patient's symptoms are more likely related to pain rather than the ventilator settings. C: Providing sedation as ordered - Sedation is not the priority in this case as the patient has been tolerating the ventilator well without requiring sedation. D: Suctioning the patient again - Since the airway has been recently cleared, suctioning again is not necessary at this point and would not address the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms.
Question 3 of 9
The following interventions are part of the emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Remove the patient's rings first. This is crucial to prevent constriction and swelling due to potential allergic reactions or inflammation from bee stings. Removing rings allows for proper circulation and prevents complications like compartment syndrome. Ice packs (B) can be applied after removing the rings to reduce swelling. Calamine lotion (C) can provide relief for itching but is not as urgent as ring removal. Diphenhydramine (D) can be given later for systemic allergic reactions but should not take precedence over removing the rings.
Question 4 of 9
Which statement about family assessment is false?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessing the structure of the family (who comprises the family) is not the last step in family assessment. The rationale is that understanding the family structure is essential at the beginning of the assessment process to identify key relationships and support systems. Assessing interaction among family members helps to understand dynamics and relationships within the family. Assessing communication is crucial to identify roles and patterns of interaction. Ongoing assessment is necessary as family dynamics can evolve throughout the illness. Therefore, A is false as family structure assessment is an important initial step, not the last step.
Question 5 of 9
What nursing strategies help families cope with the stress of critical illness? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encouraging family members to make notes of questions they have for the physician during family rounds. This strategy helps families cope with the stress of critical illness by empowering them to stay informed and actively participate in the patient's care. By encouraging them to make notes, it promotes effective communication with the healthcare team and ensures that their concerns and questions are addressed promptly. Other choices are incorrect: A: Asking the family to leave during the morning bath to promote the patient’s privacy is not a helpful strategy for coping with stress as it may lead to feelings of isolation and lack of involvement in the patient's care. C: Providing continuity of nursing care is important but may not directly address the family's coping mechanisms during a critical illness. D: Providing a daily update of the patient’s condition to the family spokesperson is valuable but may not fully address the family's need for active participation and communication with the healthcare team.
Question 6 of 9
Which statement is true regarding venous thromboembolisambir b(.VcoTm/Ete)s ta nd pulmonary embolus (PE)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because PE should be suspected in patients with unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. This is important because PE can present with nonspecific symptoms, making it crucial to consider it in the differential diagnosis. Explanation: 1. PE can present with various symptoms, including dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis, but these are not present in all patients. 2. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are not classic symptoms of PE, as it can present with tachycardia and other respiratory findings. 3. Critically ill patients are actually at higher risk for VTE and PE, so prophylaxis is typically recommended. In summary, choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of considering PE in patients with cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE, while the other choices contain inaccuracies or incomplete information.
Question 7 of 9
A patient requires neuromuscular blockade (NMB) as part of treatment of refractive increased intracranial pressure. The nursing care for this patient includes which interventions? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ensuring that deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis is initiated. When a patient requires neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure, they are likely immobile, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Initiating DVT prophylaxis, such as compression stockings or anticoagulant therapy, helps prevent blood clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because sedatives can mask signs of neurologic deterioration in this patient population. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes activities that may increase intracranial pressure and could be harmful. Choice D, while important for overall patient care, is not directly related to the specific nursing interventions required for a patient receiving neuromuscular blockade for increased intracranial pressure.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter. Assessment findings include a blood pressure of 85/40 mm Hg, heart rate of 12 5 beats/min, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and arterial oxygen saturation (SpO ) of 90% on a 50% venturi mask. 2 Hemodynamic values include a cardiac output (CO) of 1.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) of 1 mm Hg, and a pulmonary artery occlusion pres sure (PAOP) of 3 mm Hg. The nurse questions which of the following primary health care provider’s order?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer furosemide 20 mg intravenously. In this scenario, the patient is hypotensive with a low cardiac output, low CVP, and low PAOP, indicating cardiogenic shock. Administering furosemide, a diuretic, can worsen the patient's condition by further decreasing preload. This can lead to a decrease in cardiac output and exacerbate the shock state. The other options are more appropriate: A: Titrate supplemental oxygen to achieve a SpO > 94% - Correct, as improving oxygenation is essential in cardiogenic shock. B: Infuse 500 mL 0.9% normal saline over 1 hour - Correct, as fluid resuscitation may be necessary to improve perfusion. C: Obtain arterial blood gas and serum electrolytes - Correct, as these tests provide valuable information about the patient's oxygenation and electrolyte balance.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has identified an increase in medication errors in the critical care unit over the past several months. What aspect of medication procedures should be evaluated first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Adherence to procedures by nursing staff. This should be evaluated first because medication errors are often caused by human factors such as staff not following proper procedures. By assessing adherence, the root cause of errors can be identified and addressed. Choice B: Clarity of interdisciplinary communication may contribute to errors but doesn't directly address staff adherence to procedures. Choice C: Number of new employees could be a factor, but focusing on adherence to procedures is more crucial. Choice D: Changes in administration procedures may impact errors, but evaluating staff adherence is more immediate and directly related to errors.