ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the therapeutic use of Albuterol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is a medication that belongs to the class of beta-2 adrenergic agonists, which are primarily used for bronchodilation. It works by relaxing the muscles in the airways, allowing them to widen and making breathing easier for individuals with conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and other respiratory disorders. Albuterol helps to relieve symptoms of bronchospasm, such as wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. It is commonly used as a rescue inhaler for quick relief of acute bronchospasm.
Question 2 of 9
Centrally acting antitussives, such as opioids, are used to
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Opioid antitussives suppress severe coughs , not congestion , mucus , or mild coughs . C reflects their use, making it correct.
Question 3 of 9
A client with HIV is prescribed zidovudine (Retrovir). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Zidovudine, an antiretroviral, treats HIV but risks bone marrow suppression, causing anemia. Monitoring RBC count detects this, ensuring timely intervention (e.g., transfusion). Liver enzymes matter with other drugs. Potassium and glucose aren't primary concerns. RBC monitoring aligns with zidovudine's toxicity profile, critical in HIV where anemia impacts quality of life, making A the key value.
Question 4 of 9
A 52-year-old man has had several focal complex partial seizures over the last year. Which one of the following therapies would be the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Levetiracetam treats focal complex partial seizures by modulating synaptic vesicle protein SV2A, reducing excitability with broad efficacy, good tolerability, and minimal interactions, making it an appropriate initial therapy. Ethosuximide targets absence seizures, not focal. Diazepam manages acute seizures, not maintenance. Carbamazepine plus primidone is excessive; carbamazepine alone controls focal seizures via sodium channel blockade but has more interactions. Watchful waiting risks progression. Levetiracetam's profile, per guidelines, suits this patient as a first-line choice.
Question 5 of 9
Phenobarbital (luminal) is given to a client for a short treatment of anxiety. Which of the following results would indicate a therapeutic serum range of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic serum range for phenobarbital (luminal) when used for anxiety is typically between 5-10 mcg/ml. This range is considered effective in controlling anxiety symptoms while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Higher serum levels (options B, C, D) may increase the risk of adverse effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, and overdose. Therefore, monitoring the serum levels of phenobarbital is essential to ensure the medication is at a therapeutic range for the intended treatment.
Question 6 of 9
A 35-year-old African American male in the military is hospitalized with an MRSA skin infection. The patient starts treatment with an antibiotic and becomes anemic and jaundiced. On peripheral blood smear, Heinz bodies are seen within red blood cells. What is the mechanism of action of the antibiotic given to this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: MRSA treatment causing anemia, jaundice, and Heinz bodies suggests dapsone (sulfa drug), which inhibits folic acid metabolism . Oxidative stress from dapsone in G6PD-deficient patients (common in African Americans) leads to hemolysis. Options and are macrolide and tetracycline mechanisms. Option is penicillin's action. RNA polymerase inhibition (E) is rifampin's. Dapsone's sulfa action fits the clinical picture, with hemolysis as a side effect, not its primary MRSA mechanism, but the question's focus on outcome aligns with folate pathway disruption.
Question 7 of 9
The patient has been taking lorazepam (Ativan) for 2 years. The patient stopped this medication after a neighbor said the drug manufacturer's plant was contaminated with rat droppings. What best describes the nurse's assessment of the patient when seen 3 days after stopping his medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Abruptly stopping lorazepam, a benzo, after 2 years triggers withdrawal-tachycardia, fever, cramps-due to GABA downregulation, per pharmacology. It's not safe-dependence forms. Opioid-like symptoms (pupils, constipation) don't fit. Calmness contradicts withdrawal. These signs reflect cessation risk, needing taper.
Question 8 of 9
The diagnostic triad of morphine overdose consists of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The diagnostic triad of morphine overdose includes coma, depressed respiration, and pinpoint pupils. Coma occurs due to the central nervous system depression caused by morphine. Depressed respiration is a common symptom of opioid overdose, leading to respiratory distress and potential respiratory failure. Pinpoint pupils, also known as miosis, are a classic sign of opioid overdose and result from the effect of morphine on the autonomic nervous system. These three symptoms together are characteristic of a morphine overdose and indicate a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment.
Question 9 of 9
What medication is a contraindication to Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Erectile dysfunction drugs like Viagra (sildenafil), Cialis (tadalafil), and Levitra (vardenafil) are contraindicated with Nitroglycerin. Both Nitroglycerin and erectile dysfunction drugs work by lowering blood pressure. When taken together, they can cause a significant drop in blood pressure leading to dizziness, fainting, and even serious complications like low blood pressure and decreased oxygen supply to the heart. Therefore, it is important to avoid using these medications together to prevent potential harm.