What is the therapeutic classification of phenytoin (Dilantin)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. Anticonvulsants are medications primarily used to treat and prevent seizures and are commonly prescribed for patients with epilepsy. Phenytoin works by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain to prevent abnormal brain activity that leads to seizures. It is not classified as a mood stabilizer or bronchodilator; its main purpose is to control epileptic seizures.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In chemical antagonism, two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiological system but do not act at the same receptor site. This type of antagonism occurs when one drug chemically interacts with another drug to reduce its effects. The drugs involved in chemical antagonism do not compete for the same receptor site, unlike competitive antagonism where drugs compete for the same receptor site, or noncompetitive antagonism where drugs may act at different sites but still result in inhibition. Physiological antagonism involves two drugs that produce opposite effects but do not necessarily interact chemically. Potentiation refers to the increase in effect when two drugs are combined. Given the scenario described in the question, the phenomenon of two drugs producing opposite effects without acting at the same receptor site best aligns with chemical antagonism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking high-dose aspirin for arthritis requires prednisone for an acute flare, the nurse should be aware that prednisone can increase blood glucose levels. As such, the nurse should monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. It is essential to closely monitor the patient's blood glucose levels to prevent complications associated with high blood sugar levels, such as hyperglycemia. It is also crucial to educate the patient about the potential side effects of prednisone and instruct the patient on how to manage blood glucose levels while taking the medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitor vital signs and assess cardiovascular status including pulse, blood pressure, and cardiac output to evaluate for possible cardiac effects. Although assessment of bowel sounds, appetite, serum albumin level, or serum sodium and potassium levels may be important to patient care, they are not related to administration of a nonselective adrenergic blocking agent. The nurse should prioritize cardiovascular assessments to ensure patient safety.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose (A) is critical because TPN can cause hyperglycemia. Measuring intake and output (B) helps assess fluid balance. Monitoring the insertion site (D) is essential to detect infection or infiltration. Blood should never be administered through the TPN line (C) due to risk of contamination.