What is the significance of luteal phase deficiency in infertility?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because luteal phase deficiency is caused by insufficient progesterone to maintain the uterine lining, which is crucial for implantation of a fertilized egg. This deficiency can lead to difficulty in sustaining a pregnancy. A is incorrect because estrogen levels are more related to follicular phase than luteal phase. C is incorrect because luteal phase deficiency can occur in women without PCOS. D is incorrect because immature eggs are more related to ovulation issues rather than luteal phase deficiency.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Transferring multiple embryos increases the chance of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications such as preterm birth and low birth weight. 2. This is an important consideration for the couple undergoing IVF to understand the potential risks involved. 3. Single embryo transfers reduce the risk of multiples and associated complications. 4. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they provide inaccurate information that contradicts the known risks associated with multiple pregnancies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sperm count, motility, and morphology are indeed critical factors in male fertility. Sperm count refers to the number of sperm present, motility is the ability of sperm to move effectively, and morphology relates to the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact a man's fertility potential. Choice A is incorrect because male infertility can have various causes, not solely low testosterone levels. Choice C is incorrect as male infertility can impact the success of fertility treatments. Choice D is incorrect because semen analysis is a key diagnostic tool for identifying male factor infertility.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because basal body temperature rises 1 to 5 days after midcycle, indicating ovulation. This helps determine the client's most fertile period for conception. Choice A is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess cervical mucus. Choice C is incorrect as it does not evaluate uterine pathology. Choice D is incorrect as basal body temperature does not assess blockage of uterine cavity or fallopian tubes.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C: 1. Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) involves instillation of a radiopaque dye into the uterine cavity to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes. 2. This dye helps to identify any abnormalities or blockages in the reproductive system. 3. The nurse should include this information as it is essential for the client to understand the purpose and process of the procedure. 4. Understanding the use of the dye can help alleviate any anxiety or concerns the client may have. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: This procedure is typically performed without general anesthesia. B: HSG can be performed at various points in the menstrual cycle, not specifically after ovulation. D: Tylenol may be recommended for pain relief post-procedure, but it is not a necessary pre-procedure step.