What is the role of calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia treatment?

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Pediatric Clinical Nurse Specialist Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the role of calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia treatment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the treatment of hyperkalemia, calcium gluconate plays a specific role in protecting the heart from the effects of excess potassium. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest due to the increased extracellular potassium levels affecting myocardial cell membrane potential. Calcium gluconate works by stabilizing the myocardial cell membrane potential, therefore counteracting the potential toxic effects of elevated potassium levels on the heart. Option A, to act as an inotrope, is incorrect as calcium gluconate does not directly affect cardiac contractility in the context of hyperkalemia. Option B, to enhance renal potassium excretion, is incorrect as calcium gluconate does not have a direct role in enhancing potassium excretion by the kidneys. Option C, to enhance stool potassium excretion, is also incorrect as calcium gluconate primarily acts at the cellular level and does not impact potassium excretion via the gastrointestinal tract. In an educational context, understanding the role of calcium gluconate in hyperkalemia treatment is crucial for healthcare providers, especially pediatric clinical nurse specialists. They need to be able to recognize and manage hyperkalemia promptly to prevent life-threatening complications, particularly in pediatric patients who may be more vulnerable to electrolyte imbalances. By knowing the specific actions of calcium gluconate, nurses can effectively contribute to the multidisciplinary team's efforts to stabilize and treat pediatric patients with hyperkalemia.

Question 2 of 5

A head-injured 4-year-old patient who opens eyes to painful stimulus, is confused, and withdraws from pain has a Glasgow coma score of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) 10. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess a patient's level of consciousness following a head injury. The scale consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is scored, and the total score indicates the severity of the patient's condition. For a 4-year-old patient who opens their eyes to a painful stimulus, is confused, and withdraws from pain, the GCS score would be as follows: - Eye Opening: 2 - Verbal Response: 4 (confused) - Motor Response: 4 (withdraws from pain) Total GCS score: 2 (eye opening) + 4 (verbal response) + 4 (motor response) = 10 Therefore, the correct GCS score for this patient is 10, making option B the correct answer. Option A) 8 is incorrect because the patient in the scenario demonstrated a better motor response than what would align with a GCS score of 8. Options C) 11 and D) 13 are also incorrect as they do not reflect the specific responses described in the scenario. Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially pediatric clinical nurse specialists, as it helps in evaluating and monitoring patients with head injuries. It provides a standardized way to communicate the level of consciousness and neurological status of a patient, aiding in appropriate management and treatment decisions. By accurately interpreting GCS scores, nurses can contribute significantly to the care and outcomes of pediatric patients with head trauma.

Question 3 of 5

Obstructive shock is characterized by which of the following:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of Pediatric Clinical Nurse Specialist Exam questions, understanding the concept of obstructive shock is crucial for providing effective patient care. The correct answer is A) Mechanical obstruction to ventricular outflow. Obstructive shock occurs when there is a physical obstruction to blood flow, typically from conditions like cardiac tamponade, tension pneumothorax, or pulmonary embolism. This obstruction impairs the heart's ability to pump effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output and systemic hypoperfusion. Option B) Airway obstruction is incorrect because it refers to a blockage in the air passage, which is not directly related to obstructive shock. Option C) Generalized vasoconstriction is more characteristic of distributive shock, such as septic shock, where there is widespread vasodilation leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance. Option D) Hypovolemia is associated with hypovolemic shock, caused by a decrease in intravascular volume, not a mechanical obstruction. Educationally, understanding the different types of shock and their respective characteristics is essential for nurses working in pediatric settings. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of obstructive shock promptly is vital for initiating appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes. Nurses must be able to differentiate between the types of shock to provide timely and effective care to pediatric patients in critical situations.

Question 4 of 5

The following signs are more in favor of circulatory failure Except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) Marked tachypnea with recessions. This is not a sign in favor of circulatory failure but rather a sign of respiratory distress. A) Cyanosis despite supplied O2 is indicative of poor oxygenation even with supplemental oxygen, which is a sign of circulatory failure due to inadequate perfusion. C) Gallop rhythm/murmur may indicate heart failure, which is a manifestation of circulatory failure. D) An enlarged tender liver can be a sign of hepatic congestion due to circulatory failure. Educational context: Understanding the signs and symptoms of circulatory failure is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists to identify and intervene in a timely manner to prevent further deterioration in pediatric patients. Recognizing these signs can help in providing appropriate care and improving patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

Shock associated with decreased central venous pressure includes the following Except:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Cardiogenic shock. Cardiogenic shock is associated with increased central venous pressure, not decreased central venous pressure. When the heart is unable to pump effectively, central venous pressure increases due to blood backing up in the venous system. Therefore, cardiogenic shock does not fit the criteria of shock associated with decreased central venous pressure. Hypovolemic shock (B), septic shock (C), and distributive shock (D) are all types of shock that can be associated with decreased central venous pressure. - Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of intravascular fluid volume, leading to decreased central venous pressure. - Septic shock is a result of a severe infection causing widespread inflammation and vasodilation, which can lead to decreased central venous pressure. - Distributive shock, such as in cases of anaphylaxis or sepsis, involves abnormal distribution of blood flow leading to decreased central venous pressure. In an educational context, understanding the different types of shock and their associated physiological changes is crucial for pediatric clinical nurse specialists. This knowledge allows for accurate assessment, timely intervention, and effective management of pediatric patients in shock states. Remembering the specific characteristics of each type of shock can aid in making quick and appropriate clinical decisions to optimize patient outcomes.

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