What is the purpose of amniocentesis for a patient hospitalized at 34 weeks of gestation with pregnancy-induced hypertension?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Determine fetal lung maturity. At 34 weeks of gestation, assessing fetal lung maturity is crucial to determine if the baby's lungs are developed enough for safe delivery. Amniocentesis can provide amniotic fluid for testing lung maturity. Choice A is incorrect as metabolic disorders are not typically assessed through amniocentesis. Choice B is incorrect as determining fetal sex is not the primary purpose of amniocentesis at this gestational age. Choice C is incorrect as identifying abnormal fetal cells is not the main goal of amniocentesis in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A score of 8 would indicate normal results. In a biophysical profile, each component is scored as either 0 or 2, totaling a maximum of 10. In this case, the patient has: 0 for NST, 2 for FBMs, 1 for gross movements, 2 for fetal tone, and 2 for AFI, totaling 7. However, if there are at least 2 episodes of FBMs, this component is given a score of 2. Therefore, the correct total score is 8. This score indicates normal results, as it meets the criteria for a reassuring biophysical profile. Incorrect Choices: A: A score of 10 would indicate that the results are equivocal - This is incorrect as a score of 10 would indicate normal results, not equivocal. C: A score of 6 would indicate that birth should be considered as a possible treatment option - This is incorrect, as a score

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive contraction stress test (CST) indicates potential fetal distress, requiring immediate medical attention. Contacting the health care provider is necessary to discuss birth options for the patient, such as potential induction or cesarean section to prevent harm to the fetus. A is incorrect because waiting another week could pose risks to the fetus if distress is already present. C is incorrect as sending the patient out for a meal and repeating the test is not a valid or necessary intervention. D is incorrect as a fetal kick count assessment does not address the immediate concerns raised by a positive CST result.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: RhoGAM if the patient is Rh-negative. During CVS, there is a risk of maternal-fetal blood mixing, especially if the patient is Rh-negative. RhoGAM is given to prevent sensitization to the Rh factor, which could lead to hemolytic disease in the newborn. Magnesium sulfate (A) is not indicated for CVS. Prostaglandin suppository (B) is used for cervical ripening or induction of labor, not for CVS. Betamethasone (D) is a corticosteroid given to pregnant women at risk of preterm delivery to promote fetal lung maturation, not indicated for CVS.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fetal bradycardia. During PUBS, a needle is inserted into the umbilical cord to obtain fetal blood for testing. This procedure carries a risk of causing fetal bradycardia, which is a decrease in the fetal heart rate. This can be a serious complication as it may indicate fetal distress. It is important to monitor the fetal heart rate during and after the procedure to detect and address any signs of bradycardia promptly. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Postdates pregnancy - PUBS is not known to cause postdates pregnancy. C: Placenta previa - PUBS is not associated with the development of placenta previa. D: Uterine rupture - PUBS does not typically lead to uterine rupture. In summary, fetal bradycardia is the potential complication of PUBS due to the invasive nature of the procedure and the risk of affecting fetal well-being.