What is the purpose of a chest tube after a lobectomy procedure, as understood by the nurse?

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Question 1 of 9

What is the purpose of a chest tube after a lobectomy procedure, as understood by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a lobectomy, a chest tube is typically inserted to drain fluids and blood that may have accumulated post-operatively. This tube helps to prevent complications, such as infections or pneumonia, and aids in patient recovery. While a chest tube may aid in preventing a mediastinal shift (Choice A), promoting chest expansion of the remaining lung (Choice B), and removing air in the lungs to promote lung expansion (Choice D), these are not the primary reasons for its use after a lobectomy. Therefore, Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following actions would be of highest priority with regards to the external shunt?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Heparinizing the shunt daily (choice C) is the highest priority action as it prevents the formation of blood clots that can occlude the shunt, leading to potential complications such as thrombosis. Avoiding taking blood pressure or blood samples from the arm with the shunt (choice A) is also important, but secondary to heparinizing the shunt. Similarly, instructing the patient not to exercise the arm with the shunt (choice B) can help prevent unnecessary strain on the shunt, but it is not as critical as preventing clot formation. Changing the dressing of the shunt daily (choice D) is a standard nursing care practice to prevent infection, but again, it is not as critical as ensuring the shunt remains patent through daily heparinization.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about the recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress, which may be instituted after a disaster?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Critical incident stress management is a process that provides individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions and strategizing management techniques for handling stress after a disaster. Choice B, 'Follow-up', is incorrect because it generally refers to continuing care after initial treatment, not specifically to stress management education. Choice C, 'Debriefing', is a process where individuals involved in a critical event are brought together to discuss the event and their reactions to it. It can be part of the critical incident stress management process, but it doesn't cover the whole process. Choice D, 'Defusion', is a technique used in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic event to help individuals process their experiences, but it does not encompass the full range of education about stress recognition and management strategies.

Question 4 of 9

When is infertility said to exist?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Infertility is defined as not being able to get pregnant despite having frequent, unprotected sex for at least a year for most couples. Therefore, the correct answer is C. A, B, and D are incorrect. While having no uterus (choice A) may result in infertility, it is not the sole determining factor. Similarly, not having children (choice B) does not automatically indicate infertility. Lastly, the time frame of 6 months (choice D) is not sufficient to determine infertility; typically, a year of trying without success is required for such a diagnosis.

Question 5 of 9

Considering the statement that communication is most effective when barriers are first removed, which of the following is recognized as an inhibiting factor in communication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Advanced age of the client.' Age can be a significant obstacle in communication due to factors such as hearing loss, cognitive decline, or memory issues, which all can hamper effective communication. Choices A, B, and C, while they may present challenges in communication, are not directly related to age and its influence on communication, making them incorrect. The issues presented by not using universally accepted abbreviations, incorrect grammar, and poor handwriting can be resolved through clarification, education, or the use of alternative communication methods, unlike the difficulties that can arise from advanced age.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following is a normal change observed in an elderly individual?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, frequent urination. As people age, they may experience physiological changes that can lead to an increased frequency of urination. This is due to a decrease in bladder capacity and increased bladder irritability, which are normal age-related changes. On the contrary, the sense of taste (Choice A) and appetite (Choice B) often decrease with age, not increase. As for Choice D, the lens of the eye actually thickens with age, not thins, leading to conditions like presbyopia. Therefore, Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 7 of 9

What is the fundamental difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, as collaborative problems necessitate the collective expertise and skills of numerous healthcare professionals, including nurses. These problems can be dealt with through independent nursing interventions in cooperation with other team members. Option A is incorrect because collaborative problems aren't strictly managed with physician-prescribed interventions. Option C is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying and treating actual or potential health issues, rather than merely integrating physician-prescribed interventions. Option D is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying patient issues, not solely physiologic complications, and guide the necessary nursing care, not just monitor for changes.

Question 8 of 9

What side effect is commonly associated with ECT?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, as Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is commonly associated with side effects such as transient loss of memory, confusion, and disorientation. While nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur, they are not as common as the memory-related side effects. Fractures (Choice C) are unlikely unless a mishap occurs during the procedure. Hypertension and increased heart rate (Choice D) might occur during the procedure due to the physiological stress of the treatment, but these are not the most commonly associated side effects. The rationale provided did not effectively explain this, so it's important to note that ECT is a procedure often used for severe depression and other mental illnesses, and understanding its side effects is crucial for patient safety and effective care.

Question 9 of 9

You notice that Miss Kate, a bread vendor, receives and changes money, then holds the bread without washing her hands. As a nurse, what should you say to Miss Kate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, as it emphasizes the importance of hygiene in food handling, which is crucial to prevent the spread of germs and diseases. The other options do not address the root of the issue, which is the unhygienic handling of food. Option A avoids direct confrontation but does not educate the vendor on proper hygiene. Option C, although it suggests a hygienic method, may not be practical or available in all situations. Option D is an avoidance strategy rather than a way to address the problem.

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