What is the purpose of a chest tube after a lobectomy procedure, as understood by the nurse?

Questions 63

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions

Question 1 of 9

What is the purpose of a chest tube after a lobectomy procedure, as understood by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a lobectomy, a chest tube is typically inserted to drain fluids and blood that may have accumulated post-operatively. This tube helps to prevent complications, such as infections or pneumonia, and aids in patient recovery. While a chest tube may aid in preventing a mediastinal shift (Choice A), promoting chest expansion of the remaining lung (Choice B), and removing air in the lungs to promote lung expansion (Choice D), these are not the primary reasons for its use after a lobectomy. Therefore, Choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

Question 2 of 9

Which type of immunity is demonstrated by the transfer of a mother's immunoglobulin across the placenta to protect the child?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The immunoglobulin passed from the mother to the child through the placenta is an example of natural passive immunity, making choice B the correct answer. This transfer gives the child temporary immunity to various diseases without their immune system having to work. On the other hand, natural active immunity (Choice A) occurs when the body produces its own antibodies in response to an antigen. Artificial active immunity (Choice C) is achieved through vaccinations, where the immune system is stimulated to produce antibodies against a specific disease. Artificial passive immunity (Choice D) is a temporary immunity that involves the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from another source.

Question 3 of 9

During operation, who manages the lighting, noise, temperature and other factors in the operating room suite?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In an operating room, the circulating nurse is responsible for managing environmental factors such as lighting, noise, and temperature. This role includes ensuring the comfort and safety of the patient, as well as the efficiency of the team. While the Nurse Supervisor, Surgeon, and Scrub Nurse also have crucial roles during an operation, they do not directly manage the environmental conditions of the operating room. The rationale provided does not directly address the question asked, and appears to relate more to the broader role of nursing in patient care.

Question 4 of 9

Why is a pulse oximeter attached to Mr. Dizon's finger?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximeter is used to detect the oxygen saturation levels in arterial blood before the onset of hypoxemia symptoms. This device provides essential information about the effectiveness of oxygen transportation to the body's tissues. Choice A is incorrect because a pulse oximeter does not directly measure hemoglobin levels nor determine the need for a blood transfusion. Choice B is incorrect because a pulse oximeter is designed specifically to assess oxygen saturation, not tissue perfusion. Choice C is incorrect because a pulse oximeter is not used to measure the efficacy of anti-hypertensive medications, but rather to monitor oxygen levels in the blood.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following is reflected in an ECG due to hypokalemia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, is reflected in an ECG by a widening QRS Complex and a U wave. This is because potassium plays a key role in the electrical activity of the heart, and its deficiency can lead to abnormalities in the heart's rhythm as represented by these specific changes on the ECG. Choice A is incorrect as tall T waves and pathologic Q waves are more commonly associated with hyperkalemia or myocardial infarction, respectively, rather than hypokalemia. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the ECG changes caused by hypokalemia.

Question 6 of 9

Which food items should be consumed with nonheme iron to increase its absorption, according to a nurse's education plan for clients?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kiwi and Strawberries. Both of these fruits are high in vitamin C, a nutrient known to enhance the absorption of nonheme iron. Vitamin C facilitates the conversion of nonheme iron into a form that is more readily absorbed by the body, thereby enhancing iron intake. In contrast, coffee (Choice C) contains certain compounds that can actually inhibit the absorption of iron, making it a less desirable choice when the goal is to increase iron absorption. Consequently, Choices A (Kiwi), B (Strawberries), and C (Coffee) were specifically picked to highlight the varying effects of different food items on nonheme iron absorption.

Question 7 of 9

How is an ear infection that persists for less than 14 days classified?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Acute Ear Infection is the correct answer because it typically refers to an infection that is short-lived and often severe, typically lasting less than 14 days. Chronic Ear Infection (Choice B) is incorrect as it refers to an ear infection that lasts for a long time or recurs often, typically more than three months. Mastoiditis (Choice A) is a complication of a middle ear infection and not an ear infection itself. Otitis Media (Choice D) is a general term for inflammation or infection in the middle ear, which can be either acute or chronic, so it's not specific enough to be the correct answer. Understanding the duration and severity of symptoms can help in identifying the type of ear infection, facilitating appropriate treatment and prevention of complications.

Question 8 of 9

When assessing older adult clients for malnutrition at an adult day care center, which risk factors should the nurse consider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Both A and B. Dental problems and depression are both significant risk factors for malnutrition in older adults. Dental problems can lead to difficulty in chewing and swallowing, resulting in reduced food intake. On the other hand, depression can cause changes in appetite and decreased interest in eating, which can also contribute to malnutrition. Although the ability to prepare meals is important, it is not specifically identified as a risk factor for malnutrition within the context of this question. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate answers.

Question 9 of 9

Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days