What is the proper hand position when performing chest vibration?

Questions 47

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Question 1 of 9

What is the proper hand position when performing chest vibration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to spread the fingers. This allows for a larger surface area of contact with the chest, promoting effective transmission of vibrations to loosen chest secretions. Flattening the hands would reduce the effectiveness of the vibrations by limiting contact area. Cupping the hands creates a smaller contact area and may concentrate the pressure too much in one spot, potentially causing discomfort or injury. Therefore, spreading the fingers is the optimal hand position for chest vibration technique.

Question 2 of 9

What is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilize the spine. This is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a suspected spinal cord injury to prevent further damage. Immobilization helps stabilize the spine and reduce the risk of spinal cord compression or injury. Administering pain relief (B) or IV fluids (C) should only be done after proper spinal immobilization to avoid exacerbating the injury. Placing the client in a supine position (D) can be beneficial if done carefully after spine immobilization, but immobilizing the spine takes precedence to prevent any potential movement that could worsen the injury.

Question 3 of 9

Which meal is most likely to cause rapid gastric emptying after gastric resection?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A high-fat meal. After gastric resection, high-fat meals are likely to cause rapid gastric emptying due to the delayed gastric emptying effect of fats. Fats take longer to digest compared to other nutrients, leading to slower emptying of the stomach contents. This can result in rapid emptying of the stomach post-resection. A: A high-protein meal does not necessarily cause rapid gastric emptying as proteins are digested at a moderate pace. B: A large meal regardless of nutrient content may lead to slower gastric emptying due to the increased volume. C: A high-carbohydrate meal can promote quicker gastric emptying, but it is not as likely to cause rapid emptying as high-fat meals post-gastric resection.

Question 4 of 9

What is a purpose of health assessment? (Select one that doesn't apply)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the purpose of health assessment is not solely to identify the client's major disease process. Health assessment also includes collecting information about the client's health status, clarifying their ability to pay for health care, and evaluating client outcomes. Identifying the disease process is just one component of a comprehensive health assessment. The other choices (B, C, D) are incorrect because they all represent valid purposes of health assessment. Collecting information about health status helps in understanding the client's overall well-being, clarifying the ability to pay for health care assists in planning appropriate care, and evaluating client outcomes is essential for monitoring progress and adjusting interventions as needed.

Question 5 of 9

What is the priority action for a client who has just undergone a craniotomy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. After a craniotomy, the client may experience decreased oxygen levels due to the surgical procedure, anesthesia, or potential complications. Administering oxygen helps ensure adequate oxygenation to the brain and tissues. Placing the client in a supine or Trendelenburg position can increase intracranial pressure, which is contraindicated post-craniotomy. Monitoring for arrhythmias is important, but ensuring oxygenation takes precedence as hypoxia can have immediate detrimental effects on brain function.

Question 6 of 9

When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information is a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D - unexplained vaginal bleeding. This is a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy as it could indicate a serious underlying condition such as endometrial cancer. Hormone replacement therapy can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, so it should not be used in the presence of unexplained vaginal bleeding. A, B, and C are incorrect: A: Family history of stroke is not a direct contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. It may influence the decision-making process, but it is not a definitive contraindication. B: Ovaries removed before age 45 may actually be an indication for hormone replacement therapy to manage symptoms of menopause. C: Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats are common symptoms of menopause and are not contraindications for hormone replacement therapy.

Question 7 of 9

Which lab value is associated with the early detection of renal failure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Creatinine. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and excreted by the kidneys. An elevated creatinine level indicates impaired kidney function, making it a key indicator for early detection of renal failure. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) can also be elevated in renal failure, but creatinine is a more specific and sensitive marker. Sodium and potassium levels are not directly related to renal failure detection.

Question 8 of 9

What should the nurse do first when a client is admitted with acute pain after surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step is to administer pain relief (Choice A) because addressing the client's pain is a top priority to ensure their comfort and well-being. Pain management is crucial post-surgery to prevent complications and aid in recovery. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is important but should follow pain relief to ensure the client's stability. Assessing the wound (Choice C) is necessary but not the immediate priority when the client is in acute pain. Applying a warm compress (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause of the pain. Therefore, administering pain relief is the most appropriate initial action to alleviate the client's discomfort and start the healing process effectively.

Question 9 of 9

What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client with hyperthermia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide cooling measures. When caring for a client with hyperthermia, the nurse's priority is to lower the body temperature to prevent further complications. Providing cooling measures such as removing excess clothing, using fans, applying cool compresses, and encouraging hydration helps to reduce the body temperature effectively. Administering antipyretics (A and D) may be considered in some cases, but cooling measures are more immediate and effective. Administering corticosteroids (C) is not indicated in the treatment of hyperthermia. Cooling measures directly target the elevated body temperature, making it the top priority in managing hyperthermia.

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