ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine. In patients with chronic kidney disease, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial as it reflects kidney function. This assessment helps healthcare providers in evaluating the progression of the disease and adjusting treatment plans accordingly. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is essential in managing chronic kidney disease, but monitoring serum creatinine takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are also important aspects of managing chronic kidney disease, but they are not the priority assessment compared to monitoring serum creatinine.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sleeping on the affected side could increase the risk of dislocation following a hip arthroplasty. It is essential for the client to avoid sleeping on the surgical side to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote proper postoperative care and reduce the risk of complications. Avoiding crossing legs when sitting, using a raised toilet seat for proper positioning, and performing leg exercises regularly help in the recovery process and prevent complications.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The corrected answer is A. Weighing daily is crucial for clients with heart failure to monitor fluid status since sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as some physical activity is encouraged for heart failure clients, tailored to their condition. Choice D is incorrect as adjusting medication doses should always be done under healthcare provider guidance rather than self-administration.
Question 4 of 5
What is the most appropriate action when a patient experiences a fall in the hospital?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the patient for injuries. When a patient experiences a fall in the hospital, the immediate concern is to check for any injuries that may require urgent care. Calling for help can be done after assessing the patient to ensure appropriate assistance is provided. Documenting the fall is important for the patient's medical record, but it is not the most immediate action needed. Notifying the healthcare provider can come after the initial assessment to update them on the situation.
Question 5 of 5
A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.
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