ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary role of albumin in the blood?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain osmotic pressure and fluid balance. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining osmotic pressure by helping to retain fluid within the blood vessels. This function is essential for regulating blood volume and preventing fluid from leaking out into tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because albumin is not primarily responsible for transporting oxygen, acting as a clotting factor, or functioning as an immune response molecule in the blood.
Question 2 of 9
A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spoon-shaped nails. In iron deficiency anemia, spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia) are a common symptom due to changes in the nail bed. This condition is known as Plummer-Vinson syndrome. While fatigue and weakness are common in iron deficiency anemia, hyperactivity (choice A) is not typically associated with this condition. Gait problems (choice C) and petechiae (choice D) are more commonly seen in other medical conditions and are not characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.
Question 3 of 9
What causes atherosclerotic plaques to form initially?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atherosclerotic plaques form initially due to injury to the coronary artery endothelium, which triggers a cascade of events leading to plaque buildup. Choice A is incorrect because atherosclerotic plaques do not form due to an interruption of blood flow to the brain. Choice C is incorrect as statin medications are actually used to help lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of plaque formation. Choice D is incorrect as poor dietary modifications can contribute to atherosclerosis but are not the initial cause of plaque formation.
Question 4 of 9
A patient who is taking metronidazole for the past 4 days for the treatment of a parasitic infection reports to the nurse that his most recent dose made him 'flushed, sweaty, and sick in the stomach.' What assessment is most likely to address the cause of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, leading to symptoms such as flushing, sweating, and gastrointestinal upset. Asking the patient about alcohol consumption can help identify if this reaction is due to alcohol interaction. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on penicillin allergy, which is not relevant to metronidazole. Choice C is less likely to cause the reported symptoms and is not a common concern with metronidazole. Choice D is not directly related to the symptoms described by the patient.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client with lung cancer who is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with lung cancer experiencing dyspnea is to provide supplemental oxygen therapy. This intervention helps improve oxygenation and alleviate breathing difficulties. Administering a cough suppressant (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of dyspnea and can potentially depress the respiratory drive. Encouraging the client to lie flat (Choice B) can worsen dyspnea by reducing lung expansion. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial in some situations, but when a client is experiencing dyspnea due to lung cancer, supplemental oxygen therapy is the priority to improve oxygen levels and alleviate breathing difficulty.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.
Question 7 of 9
Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Seizures are most accurately diagnosed by EEG, which measures brain activity. Choice A is incorrect as ECG (electrocardiogram) measures heart activity, not brain activity. Choice B is incorrect as CBC (complete blood count) is a blood test and not used to diagnose seizures. Choice C is incorrect as an ECG (electrocardiogram) also measures heart activity, not brain activity, and is not the primary diagnostic tool for seizures.
Question 8 of 9
After teaching the students about B cells, which statement indicates teaching was successful? B cells are originally derived from cells of the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow. B cells are originally derived from cells of the bone marrow. Bone marrow is the primary site where B cells develop and mature. Lymph nodes (choice B), gut-associated lymphoid tissue (choice C), and the thymus (choice D) are involved in the immune response but are not the primary site of origin for B cells.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following best describes Cushing's syndrome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.