ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the primary purpose of validation as a part of assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of validation in assessment is to ensure that the data collected is accurate and reliable to plan appropriate nursing care. Validation helps confirm the accuracy of data, identify inconsistencies, and ensure that the information gathered is trustworthy. By verifying the data, nurses can make informed decisions and tailor individualized care plans to meet the patient's needs effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the purpose of validation in assessment. Choice A focuses on the identification of data, not the purpose of validation. Choice B and C pertain to communication and relationships, which are important but not the primary purpose of validation in the assessment process.
Question 2 of 5
A client who is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy is worried about having to wear a scarf around his neck after surgery. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse document in the care plan?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Disturbed body image related to the incision scar. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate as the client's concern about wearing a scarf post-surgery indicates a potential disturbance in body image due to the visible scar. The nurse should address the client's emotional response and offer support to help cope with the change in appearance. A: Risk for impaired physical mobility due to surgery - This choice is not directly related to the client's worry about wearing a scarf and focuses more on physical limitations post-surgery. B: Ineffective denial related to poor coping mechanisms - This choice does not address the specific body image concern expressed by the client. D: Risk of injury related to surgical outcomes - This choice does not address the client's emotional response to the scar and focuses on physical safety risks instead.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following client outcomes best describes the parameters for achieving the outcome?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it provides specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) parameters for achieving the outcome. It outlines the calorie intake, meal frequency, and start date, which allows for clear monitoring and evaluation of progress. Choice A is too vague and lacks specificity. Choice C focuses on wound care, not dietary goals. Choice D lacks specificity and a timeframe, making it difficult to measure success. In conclusion, choice B is the best option as it aligns with effective goal-setting principles.
Question 4 of 5
What is an example of a nurse modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because modifying the care plan during the evaluation phase involves making changes based on the client's response to interventions. By adding a new intervention to address an unmet goal, the nurse demonstrates critical thinking and adaptability in response to the client's needs. This action shows that the nurse is actively assessing and revising the care plan to ensure it is effective in meeting the client's goals. Choice B is incorrect because routine monitoring is part of the assessment and implementation phases, not specifically related to modifying the care plan during evaluation. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication is part of the implementation phase and does not necessarily involve modifying the care plan. Choice D is also incorrect as completing discharge paperwork is typically part of the discharge planning phase, not the evaluation phase where modifications to the care plan are made based on client outcomes.
Question 5 of 5
What is the best way to detect testicular cancer early?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monthly testicular self-examination. This is the best way to detect testicular cancer early because it allows individuals to become familiar with the normal size, shape, and texture of their testicles, making it easier to notice any changes or abnormalities. Self-examination is cost-effective, convenient, and can be done regularly to monitor for any signs of cancer. Annual physician examination (B) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Yearly digital rectal examination (C) is not relevant for detecting testicular cancer. Annual ultrasonography (D) is not recommended as a routine screening tool for testicular cancer.