ATI RN
Chapter 12 Vital Signs Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the primary purpose of using the Snellen chart during a physical examination?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary purpose of using the Snellen chart during a physical examination is to measure visual acuity, which refers to the sharpness of vision. The chart consists of letters or symbols of varying sizes that the individual is asked to read from a specific distance. By determining the smallest line of text that can be read accurately, the healthcare provider can assess the clarity of the individual's vision. Peripheral vision, depth perception, and color vision are not evaluated using the Snellen chart, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a patient's pupillary response and observes that both pupils constrict when light is directed into one eye. What does this finding indicate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consensual light reflex. When both pupils constrict in response to light directed into one eye, it indicates a consensual light reflex. This response occurs due to the connection between the optic nerves, causing both pupils to constrict simultaneously. This reflex is an involuntary response and ensures that both eyes react to changes in light intensity equally. Choice A (Direct light reflex) refers to the constriction of the pupil in response to light directly shining into that same eye, not both eyes simultaneously. Choice C (Accommodation) involves the adjustment of the lens to focus on near objects and is not related to pupillary response. Choice D (Convergence) refers to the inward movement of both eyes when focusing on a nearby object and is not related to pupillary response to light.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a patient's visual fields by confrontation. This test evaluates which cranial nerve?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cranial nerve II (optic nerve). During confrontation testing, the nurse checks each eye's peripheral vision to assess cranial nerve II function. This nerve is responsible for vision. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as cranial nerve III controls eye movement, cranial nerve IV controls eye movement of the superior oblique muscle, and cranial nerve VI controls eye movement of the lateral rectus muscle, respectively.
Question 4 of 5
The following information is recorded in the health history: 'Patient denies chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.' Which category does it belong to?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Review of systems. In a health history, the review of systems involves asking about specific symptoms related to different body systems. In this case, the information provided relates to symptoms associated with the cardiovascular system. The patient denying chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea indicates a review of symptoms related to the cardiovascular system. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the information provided does not pertain to the patient's primary reason for seeking care (chief complaint), the current symptoms and duration (present illness), or personal and social history.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following symptoms is relevant to the genitourinary system?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematuria. Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine, which is a symptom directly related to the genitourinary system. It can indicate various conditions affecting the kidneys, bladder, or other parts of the urinary tract. Tinnitus (choice B) is related to the ear, not the genitourinary system. Rhinorrhea (choice C) refers to a runny nose, which is associated with the respiratory system. Dyspnea (choice D) is a symptom of difficulty breathing, typically related to the respiratory system or cardiovascular system, not the genitourinary system.