ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of the outcome identification and planning step of the nursing process (step 3) is to design a plan of care for and with the client. This involves setting specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals to address the client's health problems. By involving the client in the planning process, it promotes client autonomy and ensures that the plan is tailored to their individual needs and preferences. Options A and B focus on data collection and analysis, which are steps 1 and 2 of the nursing process. Option C refers to nursing diagnosis, which is part of step 2 (diagnosis). Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it pertains to the specific purpose of the outcome identification and planning step.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. In the given diagnostic statement, "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate," the nurse needs to revise the mention of collaborative problem. The collaborative problem is a health issue that requires the expertise of multiple healthcare providers, whereas the statement provided focuses on a nursing diagnosis related to physical mobility impairment. The etiology (cause), nursing diagnosis, and defining characteristic are all relevant to the nursing diagnostic statement and do not need revision. The collaborative problem aspect is not appropriate in this context as it does not fit the criteria for a collaborative problem.
Question 3 of 9
A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse encourages a client with an immunologic disorder to eat a nutritionally balanced diet to promote optimal immunologic function. Autoimmunity has been linked to excessive ingestion of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fat. Excessive ingestion of fat has been linked to autoimmunity due to its potential to trigger inflammation in the body, which can disrupt the immune system's balance and lead to autoimmune responses. High-fat diets have been associated with increased production of pro-inflammatory molecules, impacting immune function negatively. Protein (choice A) is essential for immune function, vitamin A (choice B) supports immune responses, and zinc (choice D) is crucial for immune system regulation. However, excessive intake of these nutrients typically does not directly lead to autoimmunity like excessive fat consumption does.
Question 5 of 9
The client is being evaluated for hypothyroidism. During assessment, the nurse should stay alert for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased body temperature and cold intolerance, because these are classic signs of hypothyroidism due to decreased thyroid hormone levels. The body's metabolism slows down, leading to a lower core body temperature and reduced ability to tolerate cold. Exophthalmos and conjunctival redness (choice A) are associated with hyperthyroidism. Flushed, warm, moist skin (choice B) is indicative of hyperthyroidism as well, due to increased metabolic rate. A systolic murmur at the left sternal border (choice C) is not a common finding in hypothyroidism.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is the most numerous type of white blood cell (WBC)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil. Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC, typically comprising 50-70% of total WBC count. They are key players in the body's immune response, phagocytizing pathogens. Basophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes are less numerous than neutrophils. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions, eosinophils combat parasitic infections, and lymphocytes play a critical role in adaptive immunity. However, in terms of sheer numbers, neutrophils outnumber the other types of WBC.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasopressin (Pitressin). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps regulate water balance by reducing urine output. Therefore, administering vasopressin would help manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Insulin (A) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Potassium chloride (B) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not specific to diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) (C) is a diuretic that increases urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.
Question 8 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. The rationale is that the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates anxiety about leaving the hospital setting. This subjective data suggests that the patient may not feel ready for discharge despite stable vital signs and nearly healed incision. Choices A and B are incorrect because they assume the patient's readiness for self-care without considering emotional factors. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the surgery was unsuccessful.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection. 2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer. 3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child. C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40. D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.