Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process Final Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

What is the primary purpose of the implementation step in the nursing process?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To carry out the plan of care. In the nursing process, implementation is the phase where nurses put the established care plan into action by delivering the interventions outlined to meet the client's needs. This step is crucial as it ensures that the care plan is executed effectively and efficiently. Establishing priorities (A) is done during the planning phase, identifying client outcomes (C) is part of the evaluation phase, and validating nursing diagnoses (D) is typically done during the assessment phase, not implementation.

Question 2 of 5

A client has been taking a decongestant for allergic rhinitis. During a follow-up visit, which of the following suggests that the decongestant has been effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduced sneezing. Decongestants work by constricting blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion, which in turn can lead to a decrease in sneezing. Increased salivation (choice A) is not a typical effect of decongestants. Increased tearing (choice C) is more commonly associated with allergies or irritants. Headache (choice D) can be a side effect of decongestants due to their impact on blood vessels, but it does not necessarily indicate effectiveness in treating allergic rhinitis.

Question 3 of 5

What should a male client over age 50 do to help ensure early identification of prostate cancer?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Digital rectal exam (DRE) and PSA test are recommended by major health organizations for prostate cancer screening in men over 50. 2. DRE helps detect abnormalities in the prostate, while PSA test measures the levels of a protein produced by the prostate gland. 3. Prostate cancer can be asymptomatic in its early stages, so regular screening is crucial for early detection and treatment. 4. Transrectal ultrasound is not a primary screening method for prostate cancer. 5. Testicular self-exams are for detecting testicular cancer, not prostate cancer. 6. CBC, BUN, and creatinine levels are not specific tests for prostate cancer screening.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is developing a plan of care for marrow suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 7 to 14 days. Marrow suppression from floxuridine typically occurs 1-2 weeks after administration due to its effects on rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow. This is known as the nadir period. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because 24 hours is too soon for noticeable effects, 2 to 4 days is too short for the nadir period, and 21 to 28 days is too long for the onset of marrow suppression. The correct choice aligns with the expected timeframe for floxuridine's impact on bone marrow function.

Question 5 of 5

JR is admitted to the medical-surgical unit because of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome. What is the hallmark of this syndrome?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The hallmark of nephritic syndrome is edema due to proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia. Protein loss in urine causes decreased colloid osmotic pressure, leading to fluid leaking into tissues, causing edema. Osmotic diuresis (A) is unrelated to nephritic syndrome. Hypolipidemia (B) and hyperproteinemia (D) are not characteristic of nephritic syndrome.

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