ATI RN
Vital Signs Physical Assessment Techniques Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the primary purpose of performing percussion during a physical examination?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To detect changes in the density of underlying structures. Percussion helps in assessing the density of organs or tissues by listening to the sounds produced. Denser structures produce dull sounds, while air-filled structures produce resonant sounds. This technique is commonly used to assess the lungs and abdominal organs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because percussion primarily focuses on evaluating the density, not texture, temperature, or pulses.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following symptoms is relevant to the gastrointestinal system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nausea. Nausea is a symptom related to the gastrointestinal system as it often indicates issues such as stomach problems or digestive disturbances. It can be caused by various gastrointestinal conditions like gastritis, gastroenteritis, or peptic ulcers. Cough (A) and chest pain (B) are more likely related to respiratory or cardiac issues, respectively. Polyuria (D) is a symptom of excessive urination, pointing towards potential kidney or endocrine system problems, not the gastrointestinal system.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be documented under the psychiatric system in the review of systems?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Feeling anxious. In the review of systems, psychiatric symptoms are typically documented under the psychiatric system. Anxiety is a common psychiatric symptom that falls under this category. It is important to differentiate psychiatric symptoms from physical symptoms like ringing in the ears (choice B), skin rash (choice C), and joint stiffness (choice D) which are typically documented under other systems such as the neurological or dermatological systems. Symptoms like feeling anxious are subjective experiences related to mental health, making them more likely to be included in the psychiatric system.
Question 4 of 5
During an eye assessment, the nurse uses the Snellen chart to test the patient's visual acuity. Which result is considered normal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 20/20. In the Snellen chart, the first number represents the distance at which the test is performed (usually 20 feet) and the second number represents the distance at which a person with normal vision can read the same line. A person with 20/20 vision can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Therefore, a result of 20/20 indicates normal visual acuity. Choices A, C, and D all indicate vision impairment as they represent the ability to read at a distance closer than 20 feet compared to a person with normal vision.
Question 5 of 5
A 28-year-old woman presents with a complaint of chronic headaches that are worse in the morning and are associated with nausea and vomiting. She also reports blurred vision. Neurological examination reveals papilledema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intracranial hypertension. This condition presents with chronic headaches that are worse in the morning, associated with nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and papilledema on neurological examination. The increased intracranial pressure causes these symptoms. Migraine (A), cluster headache (B), and tension-type headache (C) typically do not present with papilledema or blurred vision.