ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024 Questions
Question 1 of 5
What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following statements about chest X-rays is false?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because there are contraindications for chest X-rays, such as pregnancy or concerns about radiation exposure. Patients may need to remove jewelry and metallic objects to prevent interference with the imaging. While a signed consent is typically not required for a routine chest X-ray, there are specific situations where consent may be necessary. It is essential for patients to follow fasting instructions before certain types of chest X-rays to obtain accurate results.
Question 4 of 5
When is the most appropriate time for obtaining a sputum specimen for culture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (Early in the morning) because sputum accumulation is naturally highest after a night of sleep due to prolonged stasis of respiratory secretions, which allows for a more concentrated and representative sample of pulmonary flora or pathogens. Overnight, mucus pools in the airways, increasing the yield of microorganisms for culture. This timing also minimizes contamination from food particles or oral flora, which can interfere with accurate diagnostic results. Morning collection ensures optimal specimen quality for detecting infections like tuberculosis or bacterial pneumonia, where diagnostic sensitivity depends on adequate bacterial load. Choice B (After the patient eats a light breakfast) is incorrect because eating introduces food debris and oral bacteria into the mouth and throat, contaminating the sputum sample. Salivary dilution and the mechanical action of chewing/swallowing reduce the concentration of lower respiratory secretions, leading to false-negative cultures or misidentification of commensal flora as pathogens. Additionally, postprandial collection may trigger gagging or vomiting, further compromising specimen integrity. Choice C (After aerosol therapy) is incorrect because nebulized medications (e.g., bronchodilators or saline) dilute sputum and alter its composition, washing away pathogens or distorting microbial concentrations. Aerosols also increase salivary contamination, making it harder to distinguish between upper and lower respiratory tract organisms. For accurate cultures, specimens should be collected *before* aerosol treatments to avoid therapeutic interference. Choice D (After chest physiotherapy) is incorrect because percussion or postural drainage mobilizes secretions from smaller airways, but these techniques often mix sputum with saliva and oropharyngeal contaminants. While physiotherapy may increase sputum volume, it does not guarantee a representative sample from the lungs. Furthermore, the mechanical disruption can fragment bacterial colonies, reducing culture sensitivity. Early morning collection without prior intervention remains the gold standard. In summary, morning sputum collection maximizes diagnostic accuracy by leveraging physiological secretion retention, minimizing contamination, and avoiding iatrogenic interference. The other choices introduce variables that compromise specimen quality, leading to unreliable microbiological results.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient's skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the appearance of a rash after administering penicillin, even in a patient with no known allergies, is concerning for a potential allergic reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to withhold the medication and notify the physician. This precaution is necessary to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing an adverse reaction, as allergic reactions can range from mild to severe and require immediate intervention.