ATI RN
mastering microbiology test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
What is the primary mode of transmission for tetanus?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contaminated wounds. Tetanus is caused by the bacterium Clostridium tetani, which enters the body through breaks in the skin such as wounds or cuts. The bacteria produce a toxin that affects the nervous system, leading to muscle stiffness and spasms. Ingestion of contaminated food (choice A) is not a mode of transmission for tetanus. Inhalation of droplets (choice B) is more relevant for respiratory infections. Direct physical contact (choice D) is not the primary mode of transmission for tetanus as the bacteria need a portal of entry such as a wound to cause infection.
Question 2 of 9
While examining the feces of a patient with diarrhea, cysts with four nuclei were found. What protozoan is most likely causing the condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan causes amoebiasis, which presents with symptoms like diarrhea. The cysts with four nuclei found in the feces are characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. This protozoan is known to cause invasive infection, leading to tissue destruction and ulcers in the intestines. Lamblia (choice B) typically presents with cysts containing two nuclei. Trichomonas (choice C) is a sexually transmitted parasite and does not form cysts. Balantidium (choice D) is a ciliated protozoan that does not have four nuclei in its cyst form.
Question 3 of 9
A patient of surgical department complains about pain in the small of her back and in the lower part of her belly; painful and frequent urination. Bacteriological examination of urine revealed gram-negative oxidase-positive rod-like bacteria forming greenish mucoid colonies with specific smell. What causative agent can it be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteus mirabilis. This bacterium is known to cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) and matches the description given in the question. Proteus mirabilis is a gram-negative rod-like bacterium that forms greenish mucoid colonies with a specific smell due to its production of urease enzyme. This enzyme leads to the formation of struvite crystals, which can cause painful and frequent urination. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (A) is not typically associated with UTIs. E.coli (C) is the most common cause of UTIs but does not match the specific description provided. Str.pyogenes (D) is a gram-positive bacterium and is not typically associated with UTIs.
Question 4 of 9
The key function of bacterial capsules is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: resisting phagocytosis. Bacterial capsules are composed of polysaccharides that help bacteria evade phagocytosis by immune cells. This physical barrier prevents immune cells from engulfing and destroying the bacteria. Facilitating motility (A), synthesizing DNA (C), and producing energy (D) are not primary functions of bacterial capsules. Motility is usually facilitated by flagella, DNA synthesis occurs in the bacterial chromosome, and energy production is typically carried out by metabolic processes within the bacterial cell.
Question 5 of 9
The white pulp and red pulp are part of which immune organ:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spleen. The white pulp of the spleen contains lymphocytes that help in immune responses. The red pulp filters blood and removes old or damaged red blood cells. The thymus (A) is responsible for T cell maturation, lymph nodes (B) filter lymph, and lymphoid tissue (D) includes various lymphoid organs but does not specifically refer to the spleen's distinct white and red pulp structure. Thus, the spleen is the only organ among the choices that has both white and red pulp components essential for immune functions.
Question 6 of 9
A 34-year-old male visited Tajikistan. After return, he complains of fever up to 40oC which occurs every second day and is accompanied by chills, sweating. Hepatosplenomegaly is present. Blood test results: RBC- 3x1012/l, b- 80 g/l, WBC- 4x109/l, eosinophils - 1%, stab neutrophils - 5%, segmented neutrophils - 60%, lymphocytes - 24%, monocytes - 10%, ESR - 25 mm/h. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malaria. The patient's travel history to an endemic area like Tajikistan, along with symptoms of fever with chills, sweating, and hepatosplenomegaly, are classic for malaria. The blood test results show anemia (low RBC and hemoglobin levels), which can occur in malaria due to hemolysis. The presence of eosinophils and lymphocytes are not typical for malaria, but the overall clinical picture fits. Infectious mononucleosis (choice B) typically presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and atypical lymphocytosis, which are not seen in this case. Sepsis (choice C) is characterized by systemic inflammatory response syndrome and organ dysfunction due to infection, which does not align with the symptoms and findings in the case. Typhoid fever (choice D) usually presents with gradual onset of sustained fever, abdominal pain, headache, and constipation, which are not present in this patient
Question 7 of 9
Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery can be isolated from the patient's blood:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bacillary dysentery primarily affects the intestinal tract, not the bloodstream. 2. Bacteremia is rare in bacillary dysentery, as the infection is localized. 3. Isolating bacteria from the blood is not a typical diagnostic feature. 4. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Summary: Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery are not typically isolated from the patient's blood due to the localized nature of the infection. Choices B and C are incorrect as they suggest specific timeframes, which are not relevant to bacteremia in this context. Choice D is incorrect as bacteremia is not associated with bacillary dysentery.
Question 8 of 9
Which bacteria is responsible for causing tuberculosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is responsible for causing tuberculosis. It is a slow-growing, acid-fast bacillus that primarily affects the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted through the air via respiratory droplets. Choice B, Streptococcus pneumoniae, is a common cause of pneumonia but not tuberculosis. Choice C, Salmonella enterica, causes food poisoning. Choice D, Neisseria meningitidis, causes meningitis, not tuberculosis. Therefore, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the correct answer based on its characteristics and mode of transmission.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a feature of Gram-negative bacteria?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides. Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS), which are important in pathogenesis and immune response. This feature is unique to Gram-negative bacteria, distinguishing them from Gram-positive bacteria (choice A). Teichoic acids (choice C) are found in the cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria, not Gram-negative. The statement in choice D, absence of a cell wall, is incorrect as all bacteria have a cell wall, although the composition may vary between Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.